Question bank

Chapter-1   Matter
Q-1

Name the phenomenon/property shown in each of the following examples.
(a) Water from oceans evaporate, and on reaching the cooler parts of the atmosphere, condenses and fall as rain.
(b) The fragrance of flowers spreads across the room.
(c) A stretched rubber band returns to its original shape.
(d) At 80°C, alcohol changes into vapour.
(e) A clay model retains the shape it is given.
Q-2 Read the passage given below. Then answer the questions that follow.
(a) Is the physical state of iodine affected on heating? If yes, in what way?
(b) What happens when the violet vapours are cooled?
(c) From the terms given below select all the terms that describe the above phenomenon. a. Sublimation b. Interconversion of matter c. Melting d. Reversible change e. Deposition f. Boiling
Q-3 Fill in the blanks:
(a) Matter is made up of tiny particles called ____________ . This particle can be broken up into smaller particles called ________________ , _______________and _______________ .
(b) By changing ____________ and _____________ , matter can be made to change its state.
(c) Matter _____________ when heated and ______________ when cooled.

(d) Liquids and gases _________________ due to loose arrangement of particles in their structure.

(e) Gases have _______________ intermolecular space than liquids.

Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 

Which of the following is matter?

(i)

Electricity

(ii)

Light

(iii)

Heat

(iv)

None of these
Q-2 

Which of the following is NOT a subatomic particle?

(i)

Neutron

(ii)

Proton

(iii)

Nucleus

(iv)

Electron
Q-3 

Which of the following lacks the property of diffusion?

(i)

Solids

(ii)

Liquids

(iii)

Gases

(iv)

None of these
Q-4 

Which statement is true for the molecular structure of solids?

(i)

Atoms vibrate about their mean position

(ii)

Intermolecular space is negligible

(iii)

Intermolecular attraction is strong

(iv)

All statements are true
Q-5 

Which of the following can be described as being 'fluid'?

(i)

Solids

(ii)

Liquids

(iii)

Gases

(iv)

Both b and c
Q-6 

When a solid is heated:

(i)

Its particles leave their position

(ii)

It becomes fluid

(iii)

Intermolecular space increases

(iv)

All of these
Q-7 

A burning candle emits heat and light. Select the true statement.

(i)

Heat and light are types of matter

(ii)

Heat and light are forms of energy

(iii)

Candle undergoes a change in state

(iv)

b and c are true
Q-8 

When a solid vapourises on heating, the phenomenon is called:

(i)

Evaporation

(ii)

Sublimation

(iii)

Expansion

(iv)

Boiling
Q-9 

When a liquid vapourises at room temperature, the phenomenon is called:

(i)

Boiling

(ii)

Sublimation

(iii)

Evaporation

(iv)

Condensation
Q-10 

Diffusion is the movement of particles from their region of:

(i)

Higher to lower concentration

(ii)

Lower to higher concentration

(iii)

Both a and b are correct

(iv)

None of these
Q-11 

An example of interconversion of matter in nature is:

(i)

Nitrogen cycle

(ii)

Carbon cycle

(iii)

Water cycle

(iv)

Photosynthesis
Q-12 

When ice melts heat is _____________ .

(i)

Given out

(ii)

Taken in

(iii)

Unchanged

(iv)

None of these
Q-13 

Change of state of matter from gaseous to solid is called:

(i)

Sublimation

(ii)

Deposition

(iii)

Freezing

(iv)

Condensation
Q-14 

Water droplets are seen on the surface of the bottle taken out from the fridge due to:

(i)

Condensation

(ii)

Deposition

(iii)

Evaporation

(iv)

None of these
Q-15 

When water is cooled, the motion of its particles become:

(i)

Slow

(ii)

Fast

(iii)

Unchanged

(iv)

None of these
Chapter-2   Physical Quantities and Measurement
Q-1 Answer the following Questions:

(a) What is a measure?

(b) Why has the system of using body units been replaced by the metric system?

(c) What is the official name of the present version of the metric system?

(d) A measurement consists of two parts. Name them.

(e) "The box weighs 45". Which component of measurement is absent in this statement?

(f) State two important characteristics of units.

(g) You are provided with 30 coins. When placed one above another against a ruler, the height of the stacked coins is 3 cm. What is the thickness of each coin?

(h) The length of a rectangle is 8 cm and its width is 5 cm. Calculate the area of the rectangle.

(i) The dimensions of a cuboid: Length = 8 cm, Breadth = 5 cm and Width = 2 cm. Find the volume of the cuboid.

(j) What is the volume of a cube whose side measures 7 cm?

(k) Name three types of thermometers and state the use of each.

(l) Name a liquid used in thermometers.

(m) What is the temperature range in a clinical thermometer?

(n) What is the approximate normal body temperature of humans?

Q-2 Complete the following table based on the commonly used standard units of this system:
Q-3 If you walk a distance of one-and-half kilometre, the distance you have covered in terms of:
(a) Metre -
(b) Hectametre -
(c) Decimetre -
Q-4 Celsius to Kelvin
(a) 270°C
(b) -270°C
(c) 50°C
(d) 133°C
Q-5 Kelvin to Celsius
(a) 0 K
(b) 273 K
(c) 45 K
(d) 102 K
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 

The volume of a cube of side 2 cm is:

(i)

8 cm^3

(ii)

8 cm^2

(iii)

8cm

(iv)

8 mm^3
Q-2 

The area of a square of side 2 cm is:

(i)

4 cm^3

(ii)

4 cm^2

(iii)

4 cm

(iv)

4 m^2
Q-3 

Distance from man's nose to the tip of middle finger of his outstretched arm was called:

(i)

1 span

(ii)

1 yard

(iii)

1 cubit

(iv)

1 stride
Q-4 

The metric system has _____ standard units.

(i)

4

(ii)

5

(iii)

6

(iv)

7
Q-5 

Which of the following is a standard unit of the metric system?

(i)

Candela

(ii)

Ampere

(iii)

Mole

(iv)

All of these
Q-6 

1 metre has 10 equal parts called:

(i)

Millimetres

(ii)

Decimetres

(iii)

Centimetres

(iv)

Decametre
Q-7 

In a rectangle, the longer side is called:

(i)

Length

(ii)

Height

(iii)

Width

(iv)

Breadth
Q-8 

A 30 cm metric ruler has ________________ millimetre marks on it:

(i)

10

(ii)

300

(iii)

100

(iv)

30
Q-9 

On a 24-hour clock, 19: 15 means

(i)

7:15am

(ii)

7:15pm

(iii)

9:15 pm

(iv)

9:15am
Q-10 

A clinical thermometer is numbered from ____________ :

(i)

35°C to 42°C

(ii)

35°F to 42°F

(iii)

35K to 42K

(iv)

None of these
Q-11 

One division on the seconds dial of a stopwatch represents:

(i)

1 second

(ii)

0.1 second

(iii)

0.01 second

(iv)

0.5 second
Q-12 

A quartz watch works on:

(i)

Solar energy

(ii)

Mechanical spring mechanism

(iii)

Battery operated electronic circuit

(iv)

None of these
Q-13 

Which of the following is NOT a difference between a clinical and laboratory thermometer?

(i)

Use of mercury as thermometric liquid

(ii)

Scale calibration (stem marking)

(iii)

Presence of kink

(iv)

Function
Q-14 

Which of the following are fundamental parts of a timepiece:

(i)

A mechanism

(ii)

Energy source

(iii)

A display system

(iv)

All of these
Q-15 

A beam balance is used to:

(i)

Compare masses

(ii)

Find the weight of an object

(iii)

Play see-saw

(iv)

None of these
Chapter-3   Force
Q-1 Answer the following Questions:
(a) Define force and state the SI units of force.
(b) State three effects of force.
(c) Name the two basic types of force and give two examples of each.
(d) What is force of friction?
(e) Name the three types of force of friction and give one example of each.
(f) Give two examples where force of friction is: (i) An advantage (ii) A disadvantage
(g) Mention three ways friction between two surfaces can be minimised.
(h) Friction produces heat. State one advantage and one disadvantage of the this property.
(i) What is a streamlined body? Explain why submarines and airplanes have a tear drop shape.
Q-2 Explain briefly:
(a) Talcum powder is sprinkled on the carrom board.
(b) The sole of the shoes of mountaineers are spiked.
(c) People often use some kind of rollers to shift loads.
(d) A ball that is thrown up, returns to the Earth.
(e) Pieces of iron are attracted towards a magnet.
(f) When you rub your hands together, your palms become warm.
(g) It is difficult to walk on ice.
(h) Ropes made of jute or coir is used for mountain climbing.
Q-3 Fill in the blanks
(a) _______ makes it possible to walk without slipping.
(b) There is _______ friction between smooth surfaces.
(c) Rolling friction is _______ than sliding friction.
(d) _______ force is the pull or force of attraction exerted by one body on another.
(e) The force of attraction that develops when certain objects are rubbed against each other, is called the _______ force.
(f) The invisible force that is set up between a magnet and the iron is called the _______ force.
(g) Force of Friction is _______ of the area of the surfaces in contact.
(h) The force that prevents bodies from moving is called _______ friction.
(i) Machine parts undergo wear and tear due to _________.
(j) _______ friction arises when the state of rest of a body is disturbed.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 

Which of the following action does not use force?

(i)

Pushing an object

(ii)

Pulling a cart

(iii)

Stretching

(iv)

Sitting
Q-2 

An apple on a tree falls to the ground under the force of:

(i)

Gravity

(ii)

Friction

(iii)

Magnetism

(iv)

None of these
Q-3 

There will be least friction with the floor if there is ________________ on the floor:

(i)

Oil

(ii)

Water

(iii)

Glue

(iv)

Carpet
Q-4 

_____________________________ friction is the force that makes it difficult to start moving an object.

(i)

Static

(ii)

Rolling

(iii)

Sliding

(iv)

None of these
Q-5 

The SI unit of force is:

(i)

newton

(ii)

dyne

(iii)

joule

(iv)

kilogram
Q-6 

The force of friction that originates when a flat object is pushed down an inclined plane is:

(i)

Static friction

(ii)

Rolling friction

(iii)

Sliding friction

(iv)

All of these
Q-7 

There will be the greatest friction when a cart rolls on:

(i)

Glass

(ii)

Wood

(iii)

Sand

(iv)

Concrete
Q-8 

Which is a method to reduce friction?

(i)

Lubricate with oil

(ii)

Use ball bearings

(iii)

Streamline body

(iv)

All of these
Q-9 

Which of the following helps to improve grip?

(i)

Anti-skid tiles

(ii)

Spiked shoes

(iii)

Treaded tyres

(iv)

All of these
Q-10 

Which fibre would be suitable for making ropes for mountain climbers?

(i)

Jute

(ii)

Coir

(iii)

Nylon

(iv)

Both a and b
Chapter-4   Simple Machines
Q-1 Answer the following Questions:

(a) Define a simple machine.

(b) Name the six types of simple machines.

(c) List three ways machines are useful to us.

(d) State the principle of the machine.

(e) How does a lever make it easier to do work?

(f) Make a simple sketch of each of the three kinds of levers. In each diagram mark the fulcrum, effort and load.

(g) How does a pulley make it easier to do work? Give two examples where a pulley can be used to lift loads.

(h) Find the effort required to lift a load of 80 kgf if the effort arm of a lever is 8 m long and the load arm is 2 m long.

(i) Study the diagram below and find the effort.

Q-2 Name the type of simple machine that would be most suitable for the following purposes.
(a) Lifting building material to the higher floors of a building under construction.
(b) Loading wooden crates into a truck.
(c) Cutting wood.
(d) Raising the car in order to change the flat car tyre.
(e) Opening a bottle cap.
Q-3 Fill in the Blanks:
(a) ______ are used to split or pierce materials, and to adjust the position of heavy objects.
(b) Knives, chisels, axes, pins, needles, and nails are examples of ________ .
(c) A jackscrew combines the usefulness of both, the ______ and the ________ .
(d) The mechanical advantage of a pulley can be increased by ______ the number of pulleys.
(e) The lever is balanced when the product of the ______ and ______ arm is equal to the product of the ______ and ______ arm.
Q-4 From the data given to you, find the unknown quantity (X).
(a) Load = 30 kgf; Effort = 15 kgf; Mechanical advantage = X
(b) Load arm = 2 m; Load = 15 kgf; Effort arm = 5 m; Effort = X
(c) Load = 28 kgf; MA= 2; Effort = X
(d) Load arm = X; Effort arm = 3 m; Load = 10 kgf; Effort = 4 kgf
(e) Load = X; Effort = 20 kgf; MA= 4
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 

There are _____________ types of simple machines:

(i)

4

(ii)

5

(iii)

6

(iv)

7
Q-2 

Which of the following is a simple machine?

(i)

Wedge

(ii)

Inclined plane

(iii)

Screw

(iv)

All of these
Q-3 

The ratio of the load overcome to the effort applied is called:

(i)

Simple machine

(ii)

Mechanical Advantage

(iii)

Efficiency

(iv)

None of these
Q-4 

A see-saw is balanced when the load x load arm is _______________ effort x effort arm.

(i)

Greater than

(ii)

Less than

(iii)

Equal to

(iv)

None of these
Q-5 

In a lever the force applied to overcome resistance is called:

(i)

Load

(ii)

Effort

(iii)

Fulcrum

(iv)

None of these
Q-6 

If the fulcrum is closer to the load than to the input force, the lever has MA:

(i)

Greater than 1

(ii)

Less than 1

(iii)

Equal to 1

(iv)

None of these
Q-7 

The MA of a class Ill lever is always:

(i)

More than 1

(ii)

Less than 1

(iii)

Equal to 1

(iv)

None of these
Q-8 

The Mechanical Advantage is __________________ the number of pulleys.

(i)

Less than

(ii)

More than

(iii)

Equal to

(iv)

None of these
Q-9 

Which of the following is a screw simple machine?

(i)

Car jack

(ii)

Jar lid

(iii)

Bulb and holder

(iv)

All of these
Q-10 

Which of the following is NOT a wedge simple machine?

(i)

Jar lid

(ii)

Knife

(iii)

Fork

(iv)

Axe
Chapter-5   Light
Q-1 Answer the following Questions:

(a) Name one natural source and one artificial source of light.

(b) Explain the following terms: a. Transparent b. Opaque C. Translucent

(c) Classify the following substances as transparent, opaque or translucent. a. Mirror b. Water c. Butter paper d. Mercury e. Air f. Milk

(d) State three effects of rectilinear propagation of light.

(e) State two factors that determine the type of shadow formed by a point source of light.

(f) Make a neat sketch of a shadow formed by a point source of light.

(g) List three characteristics of the shadow formed.
(h) Make a neat sketch of a shadow formed by a light source smaller than the object.
(i) List three characteristics of the shadow formed.

(j) Explain: We do not see the shadow of birds and aeroplanes flying at great heights.

(k) What is an eclipse?

(l) What is the principle underlying the pinhole camera?

(m) What is the nature of image formed in a pinhole camera?

Q-2 Fill in the blanks using the term lunar or solar:
(a) During a _____ eclipse, the Earth casts its shadow on the Moon.
(b) A _____ eclipse can occur only on a New Moon day.
(c) A ____________ eclipse takes place when the Earth is in between the Sun and the Moon.
(d) During a _____ eclipse, the Moon casts its shadow on the Earth.
(e) A _____ eclipse can occur only on a Full Moon day.
(f) When the Moon is positioned in between the Sun and the Earth, a _____ eclipse occurs.
Q-3 State whether the statements are true or false:
(a) Light travels in a straight line in any medium.
(b) A translucent medium allows all of the light to pass through it.
(c) The image formed on the retina of the eye is inverted.
(d) Light consists of packets of energy called photons.
(e) The uniformly dark shadow formed during a solar eclipse is called the penumbra.
(f) In a pinhole camera the light enters the box through the translucent surface.
(g) The image formed in a pinhole camera is larger than the object.
(h) When an opaque object is placed between a point source and screen, the shadow is the same shape as the object.
(i) In dim light the shadow formed is blurred.
(j) A solar eclipse occurs of a Full Moon day.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 

The image formed on the retina of the eye is:

(i)

Real

(ii)

Inverted

(iii)

Erect

(iv)

Both a and b
Q-2 

During a lunar eclipse, of the three the celestial body lined up, the middle one is:

(i)

Earth

(ii)

Moon

(iii)

Sun

(iv)

None
Q-3 

During a solar eclipse the celestial body in the middle is the:

(i)

Earth

(ii)

Moon

(iii)

Sun

(iv)

None
Q-4 

Which of the following is NOT a luminous body?

(i)

Moon

(ii)

Sun

(iii)

Electric bulb

(iv)

Burning candle
Q-5 

Which of the following is a non-luminous body?

(i)

Earth

(ii)

Sun

(iii)

Moon

(iv)

Both a and c
Q-6 

Which of the following is a natural light source?

(i)

Glow worms

(ii)

Electric bulb

(iii)

Oil lamp

(iv)

None of these
Q-7 

Which of the following is an artificial light source?

(i)

Electric bulb

(ii)

Sun

(iii)

Moon

(iv)

Fireflies
Q-8 

A packet of light energy is called:

(i)

Proton

(ii)

Photon

(iii)

Neutron

(iv)

None of these
Q-9 

Which of the following is translucent?

(i)

Butter paper

(ii)

Wood

(iii)

Brick

(iv)

Aluminium sheet
Q-10 

Which of the following is transparent?

(i)

Ground glass

(ii)

Mirror

(iii)

Copper sheet

(iv)

Water
Q-11 

An image that can be caught on a screen is:

(i)

Real

(ii)

Virtual

(iii)

Erect

(iv)

Both a and c
Q-12 

A virtual image:

(i)

Can be caught on a screen

(ii)

Cannot be caught on a screen

(iii)

Is always inverted

(iv)

None of these
Q-13 

The shadow cast by the Sun is longest at:

(i)

Midday

(ii)

Sunrise

(iii)

Sunset

(iv)

Both band c
Q-14 

During Annular solar eclipse:

(i)

Moon partially covers the Sun's disc

(ii)

Moon completely covers the Sun's disc

(iii)

A ring of fire is observed

(iv)

None of these
Q-15 

The earliest explanation of vision was given by the Greek philosopher:

(i)

Aristotle

(ii)

Pythagoras

(iii)

Socrates

(iv)

Plato
Chapter-6   Magnetism
Q-1 Answer the following Questions:

(a) Name a naturally occurring magnet.

(b) Distinguish between magnetic and non-magnetic materials and give three examples of each.

(c) State two important properties of magnets.

(d) State what you would observe when: (i) Like poles of two magnets are brought near each other. (ii) Unlike poles of two magnets are brought near each other. (iii) What do you conclude from the above observation?

(e) Explain: Repulsion and not attraction is the true test for polarity.

(f) Explain what is meant by the directive property of magnets.

(g) Name a device based on the directive property of magnets.

(h) What is a magnetic field?

(i) State four characteristics of lines of force.

(j) What is an electromagnet?

(k) State the differences between a permanent magnet and an electromagnet.

(l) State three uses of electromagnets.

(m) Mention two ways the strength of an electromagnet can be increased.

(n) Magnets of different shapes can be made in order to suit a specific purpose. Name three different shapes of magnets and state the use of each.

(o) The Earth itself behaves like a magnet. Account for the Earth's magnetism.

Q-2 State whether the following statements are true or false:
(a) Poles exist in pairs.
(b) Articles made of stainless steel are not attracted by a magnet.
(c) Paper, plastic and glass are examples of magnetic substances.
(d) The Earth's magnetic field is due to electric currents in its molten core.
(e) A freely suspended magnet always comes to rest in the north-south direction.
(f) Like poles attract and unlike poles repel.
(g) If two objects repel each other, then both must be magnets.
(h) An electromagnet is an example of an artificial magnet.
(i) The space around a magnet in which other magnets or certain metals experience a force is called a magnetic field.
(j) Lines of force are closed and continuous.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 

Lodestone is also called:

(i)

Haematite

(ii)

Magnetite

(iii)

Iron pyrite

(iv)

Limonite
Q-2 

Which of the following is a non-magnetic substance?

(i)

Clay

(ii)

Steel

(iii)

Nickel

(iv)

Iron
Q-3 

In non-magnetic substances, the domain is:

(i)

Alligned

(ii)

Random

(iii)

Absent

(iv)

None of these
Q-4 

Which of the following is a property of magnets?

(i)

They show the property of attraction

(ii)

All magnets have two poles

(iii)

Directive property

(iv)

Poles of a magnet exist in pairs
Q-5 

A compass needle always points:

(i)

East

(ii)

West

(iii)

North

(iv)

South
Q-6 

Which statement is NOT true for lines of force?

(i)

Lines never cross each other

(ii)

Lines are crowded near the poles

(iii)

Lines are far apart where field is weak

(iv)

Lines start from SP and end at NP
Q-7 

Which statement is NOT true with respect to the care of magnets?

(i)

Bar magnets should be kept in pairs with similar poles on same side

(ii)

Magnets should be stored with keepers

(iii)

Magnets should be kept away from electronic items

(iv)

Magnets should not be heated or hammered
Q-8 

________________ magnets are used in compass:

(i)

Horseshoe

(ii)

Disc

(iii)

Bar

(iv)

Cylindrical
Q-9 

Which of the following is NOT a component of permanent magnet?

(i)

Nickel

(ii)

Aluminium

(iii)

Cobalt

(iv)

Copper
Q-10 

The Greek philosopher who first described magnetism was:

(i)

Aristotle

(ii)

Thales

(iii)

Plato

(iv)

Socrates
Q-11 

Like poles:

(i)

Repel

(ii)

Attract

(iii)

Neither a or b

(iv)

None of these
Q-12 

Which of the following is a component of a compass?

(i)

Pivot

(ii)

Needle

(iii)

Directions card

(iv)

All of these
Q-13 

Which of the following is NOT a non-magnetic substance?

(i)

Wood

(ii)

Plastic

(iii)

Steel

(iv)

Glass
Q-14 

Electromagnets are used in:

(i)

Electric bell

(ii)

Maglev train

(iii)

Vacuum cleaner

(iv)

All of these
Q-15 

The strength of an electromagnet can be increased by:

(i)

Increase number of turns of wire

(ii)

Increase number of batteries

(iii)

Use solid soft iron core

(iv)

All of these