Question bank

Chapter-1   Cell Structure
Q-1 Answer the following questions

(1) Define a cell.

(2) State three differences between a plant cell and an animal cell.

Q-2 Give one distinguishing feature between the following:

(a) Cell wall and Cell membrane

(b) Cytoplasm and Nucleoplasm

(c) Chromoplast and Leucoplast

(d) Cell organelle and Cell inclusion

(e) Chloroplast and Chromoplast

(f) Centrosome and Centrioles

(g) Vacuoles and Granules

(h) Smooth and Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum

(i) Chloroplast and Chlorophyll

(j) Prokaryotic cell and Eukaryotic cell

Q-3 Explain briefly:
(i) Mitochondria are also called the "power house" of the cell.
(ii) The nucleus is often referred to as the "brain" of the cell.
(iii) Lysosomes are also called "suicide bags".
Q-4 Fill in the blanks with organelle-function associations.
(i) Ribosomes and ___________ .
(ii) Nucleus and _____________ .
(iii) ________ and respiratory enzymes.
(iv) Endoplasmic reticulum and _______ .
(v) ________ and digestive enzymes.
(vi) _______ and hormones, enzymes.
Q-5 Give two examples of each of the following types of cell inclusions:
(i) Reserve products
(ii) Secretory products
(iii) Waste products in plant cells
Q-6 Name two organisms in which the following structures are absent:
(i) Nucleus
(ii) Golgi complex
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 

Which of the following is a characteristic of prokaryotes?

(i)

True nucleus

(ii)

Membrane bound organelles

(iii)

Nucleoid

(iv)

Multicellular organisms
Q-2 

Which structure will not be present in the cytoplasm?

(i)

Organelles

(ii)

Vacuole

(iii)

Granules

(iv)

Nucleolus
Q-3 

Which of the following is a function of vacuole?

(i)

To support upright position of the plant

(ii)

Store pigments and nutrients

(iii)

Maintain osmotic pressure in cells

(iv)

All of these
Q-4 

Which of the following is a plant secretion?

(i)

Enzymes

(ii)

Fats and oils

(iii)

Gums and resins

(iv)

Latex
Q-5 

Which of these present in a cell constitute the living components of the cell?

(i)

Chromatin fibres

(ii)

Fat droplets

(iii)

Granules

(iv)

Cell wall
Q-6 

Which of the following is concerned with protein synthesis?

(i)

Mitochondria

(ii)

Golgi Body

(iii)

Ribosome

(iv)

Endoplasmic reticulum
Q-7 

Which of the following are pigmented plastids?

(i)

Chloroplast

(ii)

Chromoplast

(iii)

Leucoplast

(iv)

Both a and b
Q-8 

Which of the following will not be found in a plant cell?

(i)

Plastids

(ii)

Ribosome

(iii)

Centrioles

(iv)

Endoplasmic reticulum
Q-9 

Which of the following will be present in a prokaryotic cell?

(i)

DNA

(ii)

Mitochondria

(iii)

Nucleus

(iv)

Endoplasmic reticulum
Q-10 

Which of the following has a nucleus?

(i)

Mature RBC

(ii)

Sieve tubes

(iii)

Bacterial cell

(iv)

Root cells
Q-11 

Which of the following is a function of the nucleus?

(i)

Controls metabolic activities of the cell

(ii)

Cell division

(iii)

Transmission of hereditary traits

(iv)

All of these
Q-12 

Which of the following is a not a cell organelle?

(i)

Starch grains

(ii)

Peroxisomes

(iii)

Lysosomes

(iv)

Plastids
Q-13 

Golgi complex is absent in:

(i)

Bacterial cell

(ii)

Mature sperms

(iii)

Mature RBC

(iv)

All of these
Q-14 

Which of the following is NOT a function of the lysosome?

(i)

To digest stored proteins, fats and glycogen of the cytoplasm

(ii)

To digest and remove worn out cells

(iii)

To digest foreign particles like bacteria and virus

(iv)

None of the above
Q-15 

The statement "all cells arise from pre-existing cells" was put forth by:

(i)

Rudolf Virchow

(ii)

Robert Hooke

(iii)

Theodor Schwann

(iv)

Matthias Schleiden
Chapter-2   Plant and Animal Tissues
Q-1 Answer the following questions

(1) Define a tissue.

(2) Mention the general characteristics of the epithelial tissue.

(3) Mention one similarity and one difference between smooth muscles and the cardiac muscle.

(4) Why is blood regarded as a connective tissue?

(5) State the significance of brown fat.

(6) Mention two peculiarities of the cardiac muscle.

Q-2 Answer the Question

(a) Arrange the following terms in the correct sequence of development. Organism, cell, organ system, tissue, organ, tissue system

(b) Select the term given in (a) to describe the following : (i) Bacteria (ii) Leaf (iii) Amoeba (iv) Tree (v) Roots (vi) Unicellular root hair

Q-3 Name the tissue found:
(i) In the mesophyll of leaves.
(ii) In the veins of leaves.
(iii) At the growing tips of root, stem and leaves.
(iv) Connecting bones.
(v) Below epidermis in dicot stems.
(vi) In the hard coverings of seeds and nuts.
(vii) Forming the body wall.
(viii) In the rings of trachea.
(ix) Lining the windpipe or trachea.
(x) In the brain.
(xi) In between the vertebra of mammals.
(xii) Enveloping bones and connecting them to muscles.
Q-4 Name one place in living organisms where the following tissues are located:
(i) Nervous tissue
(ii) Squamous epithelium
(iii) Glandular epithelium
(iv) Areolar connective tissue
(v) Adipose tissue
(vi) Columnar epithelium
(vii) Cardiac muscle
(viii) Cuboidal epithelium
Q-5 Distinguish between:
(i) Cell and tissue
(ii) Parenchyma and collenchyma tissues
(iii) Sclerenchyma and parenchyma tissues
(iv) Meristematic and permanent tissue
(v) Collenchyma and sclerenchyma tissues
(vi) Apical and lateral meristem
(vii) Red blood cell and White blood cell
(viii) Blood and lymph
(ix) Tendon and ligament
(x) Bone and cartilage
(xi) Striated and unstriated muscle
(xii) Fluid tissue and other connective tissues
Q-6 Name:
(i) One living and one dead component of the xylem.
(ii) One living and one dead component of the phloem .
(iii) The aerating pores present on woody stems.
(iv) A non-conducting component of the xylem.
(v) The two types of sclerenchyma tissues.
(vi) A fibre of economic importance.
Q-7 State the role of the following:
(i) Waxy coating of the leaves of aquatic plants.
(ii) Glandular hair on the epidermis of the nettle.
(iii) Suberin coating on onion cells.
(iv) Lenticels
Q-8 Identify the tissue from the description given:
(i) Cell wall is unevenly thickened with cellulose at corners.
(ii) Occurs below epidermis in stems.
(iii) It has thin, cellulose cell wall.
(iv) Conducts water and minerals from the root to the leaves.
(v) Cuboid or columnar cells, lining the trachea of vertebrates.
(vi) Found beneath the bark and causes the organ to increase in diameter.
(vii) Hard porous tissue impregnated with calcium and magnesium salts.
(viii) Occurs only in the heart.
(ix) Cells are taller than broad, with nucleus towards the base.
(x) Cell wall is evenly thickened with lignin.
Q-9 State whether the following statements are true or false:
(i) Nuclei are absent in mature sieve tube elements.
(ii) Except xylem parenchyma, all other elements at maturity consist of dead cells.
(iii) Companion cells are absent in the phloem of ferns and gymnosperms.
(iv) lntercalary meristem is found beneath the bark of trees.
(v) The cells of meristematic tissues have prominent vacuoles and a small nucleus.
(vi) A single large vacuole is present in the cells of sclerenchyma tissues.
(vii) Blood vessels are present in cartilage tissue.
(viii) The areolar connective tissue joins skin to muscles and supports internal organs.
(ix) Leucocytes help in clotting blood.
(x) Cuboidal epithelium is found in the inner lining of the cheek.
Q-10 Write one word for the following:
(i) Cells of the tissue are capable of cell division.
(ii) A group of cells performing a specific function.
(iii) Tissues concerned with the transportation of food, water, minerals, etc.
(iv) Structures within a cell concerned with different functions.
(v) Several tissues collectively performing the same function.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 

Which of the following is a characteristic of fluid connective tissue?

(i)

Fibres are absent

(ii)

Maintains a continuity within the body

(iii)

Formed cells are suspended in plasma

(iv)

All of these
Q-2 

Which of these is NOT an part or component of muscle tissues?

(i)

Myofibrils

(ii)

Sarcolemma

(iii)

Dendrites

(iv)

Sarcoplasm
Q-3 

Which of the following is NOT a function of the nervous tissue?

(i)

To coordinate and controls body activities

(ii)

Stimulates muscle contraction

(iii)

Create an awareness of the environment

(iv)

Distribute blood to various parts of the body
Q-4 

Which of the following is NOT part of the nerve tissue?

(i)

Myelin sheath

(ii)

Dendron

(iii)

Axon

(iv)

Harvesian canal
Q-5 

Bone tissue is made up of the following types of cells:

(i)

Osteoclasts

(ii)

Osteoblasts

(iii)

Osteocytes

(iv)

All of these
Q-6 

Which of the following is NOT a component of blood?

(i)

WBC

(ii)

Platelets

(iii)

Plasma

(iv)

Lymph
Q-7 

Function of the ground tissue in plants is:

(i)

Protection

(ii)

Transport

(iii)

Food storage

(iv)

None of these
Q-8 

Select the feature or characteristic present in tendons.

(i)

Inelastic and inflexible

(ii)

Joins skeletal muscles to bone

(iii)

Made up of yellow fibrous connective tissue

(iv)

Consists mainly of collagen fibres
Q-9 

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of bone?

(i)

It is hard and non-porous

(ii)

Nerves and blood vessels are absent

(iii)

It is found throughout the body

(iv)

It supports and protects the body
Q-10 

Which of the following is NOT a feature of unstriated muscle?

(i)

Muscle contractions are involuntary

(ii)

Muscle contractions are rapid and powerful

(iii)

It has a single, centrally located nucleus

(iv)

Cells may be branched
Q-11 

Which of the following is NOT a feature of squamous tissue?

(i)

Made up of compact, flat plate-like cells

(ii)

Gives mechanical strength

(iii)

Forms the lining of skin

(iv)

Protects underlying parts
Q-12 

Which of the following is NOT a feature of collenchyma tissue?

(i)

Nucleus is absent

(ii)

Vacuole is absent

(iii)

Cell wall is lignified

(iv)

All of these
Q-13 

Which of the following is not present in xylem tissue?

(i)

Bast cell

(ii)

Vessels

(iii)

Tracheids

(iv)

Fibres
Q-14 

This tissue is found below the epidermis in dicot stems:

(i)

Parenchyma

(ii)

Collenchyma

(iii)

Sclerenchyma

(iv)

Meristematic tissue
Q-15 

Vacuole is absent in the following tissue:

(i)

Parenchyma

(ii)

Collenchyma

(iii)

Sclerenchyma

(iv)

Meristematic tissue
Chapter-3   Flowering Plants
Q-1 Give one term for the following:
(i) Flowers that occur singly.
(ii) Stalk of the individual flower of an inflorescence.
(iii) Flowers which have no stalk.
(iv) The main axis of an inflorescence.
(v) Bracteoles forming the outermost whorl of a flower.
(vi) The base or receptacle of a flower.
(vii) A flower in which all the four whorls are present.
(viii) A non-functional gynoecium.
(ix) Flowers having both the essential whorls.
(x) A flower in which both, the gynoecium and androecium are absent.
(xi) The male and female flowers are borne on the same plant.
(xii) The male and female flowers are borne on separate plants.
(xiii) The flower is completely devoid of petals and sepals.
(xiv) Petals and sepals are fused to form a single unit.
Q-2 Explain the following terms:
(i) Petaloid
(ii) Polypetalous
(iii) Peduncle
(iv) Perigynous
(v) Epigynous
(vi) Gamosepalous
Q-3 State the function of each:
(i) Calyx
(ii) Corolla
(iii) Stigma
(iv) Ovary
(v) Anther
Q-4 Give two examples of each:
(i) Gamopetalous flower
(ii) Polypetalous flower
Q-5 Explain the following terms and give one example each:
(i) Monadelphous stamens
(ii) Polyadelphous stamens
(iii) Epipetalous stamens
(iv) Diadelphous stamens
Q-6 Match the description given in column A with the appropriate match in column B.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 

Which of the following is a characteristic of monocot plants?

(i)

Parallel venation

(ii)

Reticulate venation

(iii)

Petiolate leaves

(iv)

Pentamerous whorls
Q-2 

Which of these are gymnosperms?

(i)

Fir

(ii)

Cycas

(iii)

Pine

(iv)

All of these
Q-3 

Which of these plants bear flowers?

(i)

Cycas

(ii)

Ferns

(iii)

Coconut tree

(iv)

None of these
Q-4 

If both male and female flowers are borne on the same plant, then the plant is:

(i)

Monoecious

(ii)

Dioecious

(iii)

Bisexual

(iv)

None of these
Q-5 

Which of the following is not a primary function of the root?

(i)

Fix the plant to the soil

(ii)

Absorb water from the soil

(iii)

Absorb minerals from the soil

(iv)

Provide additional support with prop roots
Q-6 

If the androecium is absent or non functional, the flower is:

(i)

Neuter

(ii)

Pistillate

(iii)

Staminate

(iv)

Complete
Q-7 

A single unit of perianth is called:

(i)

Petal

(ii)

Tepal

(iii)

Epicalyx

(iv)

Sepal
Q-8 

Which of these do not have a persistent calyx?

(i)

Brinjal (egg plant)

(ii)

Tomato

(iii)

Apple

(iv)

Pomegranate
Q-9 

In a gamopetalous flower:

(i)

Petals are free

(ii)

Petals are fused

(iii)

Sepals are free

(iv)

Sepals are fused
Q-10 

Which statement is NOT true for the androecium?

(i)

It is the innermost floral whorl

(ii)

The anther has four lobes

(iii)

Stamens occur only in pairs

(iv)

All the statements are false
Q-11 

Which statement is NOT true for the ovule?

(i)

It is contained inside the embryo sac

(ii)

Ovules are the rudiments of seeds

(iii)

Ovules are borne on the placenta

(iv)

All the above are false statements
Q-12 

The main axis of the inflorescence is called:

(i)

Peduncle

(ii)

Pedicel

(iii)

Petiole

(iv)

Spur
Q-13 

Which statement is NOT true for a hypogynous flower?

(i)

Ovary is superior

(ii)

Thalamus is concave

(iii)

Petals and sepals arise from below the ovary

(iv)

Thalamus is convex
Q-14 

Which statement is NOT true for cymose inflorescence?

(i)

Lateral flowers bloom in acropetal order

(ii)

The main axis ends in a flower

(iii)

It is determinate inflorescence

(iv)

Progression of blooming is basipetal
Q-15 

Arrangement of flowers on a stem is called:

(i)

Phyllotaxy

(ii)

Inflorescence

(iii)

Corona

(iv)

Bouquet
Chapter-4   Pollination and Fertilisation
Q-1 Give one name for the following:
(i) Flowers possess structural features which do not allow self-pollination.
(ii) A ripened ovary.
(iii) The stigma of the flower matures before the stamens.
(iv) Simultaneous maturation of anthers and stigma.
(v) A condition in which the flowers remain closed .
(vi) The androecium matures earlier than the gynoecium.
(vii) Pollination brought about by wind .
(viii) Nutritive tissue lining in the ovule.
(ix) Product formed by the fusion of sperm nucleus and definitive nucleus.
(x) Pollination brought about by insects.
Q-2 Define the following terms:
(i) Pollination
(ii) Fertilisation
Q-3 Answer the following questions

(1) State two advantages and two disadvantages of cross-pollination.

(2) What is a fruit? State the significance of fruits.

(3) Explain briefly the 'lever mechanism' in salvia that facilitates pollination.

Q-4 State the fate of each of the following after fertilisation:
(i) Ovule
(ii) Ovary wall
(iii) Calyx
(iv) Corolla
(v) Stigma and Style
(vi) Stamens
Q-5 Give two examples of each:
(i) Insect pollinated flowers
(ii) Self-pollinated flowers
(iii) Wind pollinated flowers
(iv) Bird pollinated flowers
(v) Water pollinated flowers
(vi) Unisexual flowers
Q-6 State two important characteristics of each of the following:
(i) Wind pollinated flowers
(ii) Insect pollinated flowers
(iii) Water pollinated flowers
(iv) Bird pollinated flowers
Q-7 Briefly explain the following terms:
(i) Double fertilisation
(ii) Artificial pollination
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 

Self-pollination occurs when transfer of pollen takes place to:

(i)

Stigma of the same flower

(ii)

Stigma of different flower on the same plant

(iii)

Stigma of flower on a different plant

(iv)

Both (a) and (b) are correct
Q-2 

Which of the following are adaptations that encourage self-pollination?

(i)

Herkogamy

(ii)

Homogamy

(iii)

Dichogamy

(iv)

Heterostyly
Q-3 

Which of the following condition does NOT favour cross-pollination?

(i)

Dioecious flowers

(ii)

Self-sterility

(iii)

Heterostyly

(iv)

None of these
Q-4 

Which of the following is a disadvantage of cross-pollination?

(i)

New varieties are produced

(ii)

Offsprings are healthier

(iii)

Large quantities of pollen grains are produced

(iv)

Seeds are produced in abundance
Q-5 

Which of the following is a characteristic of wind pollinated flowers?

(i)

Small and inconspicuous flowers

(ii)

Sticky or hairy pollen

(iii)

Bright showy flowers

(iv)

Fragrant flowers
Chapter-7   Five Kingdom Classification
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 

Virus does not find a place in the Five Kingdom System of classification because:

(i)

It cannot perform metabolic activities

(ii)

It does not have a cellular structure

(iii)

It lacks protoplasm and organelles

(iv)

(a), (b) and (c)
Q-2 

As per the binomial nomenclature devised by Carl Linnaeus, the Latin name of frog would be written thus:

(i)

Rana Tigrina

(ii)

Rana tigrina

(iii)

Rana Tigrina

(iv)

Rana tigrina
Q-3 

The sequence of representing the units of classification is:

(i)

Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Family, Order, Genus, Species

(ii)

Kingdom, Phylum, Order, Class, Family, Genus, Species

(iii)

Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species

(iv)

Kingdom, Phylum, Family, Class, Order, Genus, Species
Q-4 

Which of the following is a characteristic of Kingdom Animalia?

(i)

Cellulose cell wall

(ii)

Autotrophic

(iii)

Heterotrophic

(iv)

Reserve food is starch
Q-5 

Which of the following is a characteristic of Gymnosperms?

(i)

Cone is absent

(ii)

Flowers are present

(iii)

Seeds are naked

(iv)

Fruits are formed
Q-6 

Which is NOT a characteristic of invertebrates?

(i)

Notochord absent

(ii)

Heart is dorsal

(iii)

Heart is ventral

(iv)

Skin forms the eyes
Q-7 

Which is NOT a characteristic of algae?

(i)

Autotrophic

(ii)

Cellulose cell wall

(iii)

Reserve food is glycogen

(iv)

Reserve food is starch
Q-8 

Which statement is true for a dicotyledon plant?

(i)

Trimerous arrangement of floral whorls

(ii)

Pentamerous arrangement of floral whorls

(iii)

Sessile leaves

(iv)

Parallel venation
Q-9 

Feature common to both nematodes and annelids:

(i)

False body cavity

(ii)

True body cavity

(iii)

3 layered body

(iv)

Body has segments
Q-10 

Feature common to both nematodes and platyhelminthes:

(i)

Flat body

(ii)

Body cavity absent

(iii)

Bilateral symmetry

(iv)

Cylindrical body
Q-11 

Which is NOT a reptilian characteristic?

(i)

3 chambered heart

(ii)

Slimy skin

(iii)

Cold blooded

(iv)

Oviparous
Q-12 

Locomotion in molluscs is with:

(i)

Tube feet

(ii)

Muscular foot

(iii)

Setae

(iv)

Pseudopodia
Q-13 

Spider belongs to the class:

(i)

Crustacea

(ii)

lnsecta

(iii)

Arachnida

(iv)

Myriapoda
Q-14 

Microorganisms like bacteria belong to Kingdom:

(i)

Protista

(ii)

Monera

(iii)

Fungi

(iv)

None of these
Q-15 

Which is NOT a feature of vertebrates?

(i)

The brain is protected in a bony box called cranium

(ii)

Red pigment haemoglobin is present in the blood

(iii)

Paired appendages are more than two pairs

(iv)

Both, an endoskeleton and exoskeleton are present
Chapter-8   Economic Importance of Bacteria and Fungi
Q-1 Explain briefly the role of bacteria:
(i) As Nature's scavengers.
(ii) In nitrogen fixation.
(iii) In the manufacture of gobar gas.
Q-2 Answer the following questions

(1) Distinguish between decay and putrefaction.

(2) Name two antibiotics derived from bacteria

(3) Name three diseases in humans caused by bacteria.

(4) Name three diseases in plants caused by bacteria.

Q-3 What is meant by:
(i) Retting of fibres
(ii) Curing of cheese, tobacco
(iii) Biological weapon?
Q-4 Name the bacterium associated with the following:
(i) Production of vinegar
(ii) Formation of curd
Q-5 Explain how the following methods help prevent food spoilage:
(i) Use of low temperatures
(ii) Use of high temperatures
(iii) Dehydration
(iv) Use of concentrated solutions
(v) Use of irradiation
(vi) Use of chemicals
Q-6 Explain briefly:
(i) Fungi are heterotrophic.
(ii) The living room in every house must receive direct sunlight daily even if for a short duration.
(iii) Denitrification bacteria of the soil are a boon and a curse to the farmer.
(iv) Yeast is used in bakeries and breweries.
Q-7 State/ Name three:
(i) Useful effects of bacteria.
(ii) Harmful effects of bacteria.
(iii) Harmful activities of fungi.
(iv) Economic importance of yeast.
Q-8 Answer the following questions with respect to mushroom cultivation:
(i) Composting is carried out in two phases. Explain the importance of Phase II composting.
(ii) Spawn is used to 'seed' the mushroom compost. Explain how the spawn is obtained .
(iii) Name the stage that follows spawning. Why is it important to provide plenty of water at this stage?
(iv) What are pins and state the conditions that favour the development of pins.
(v) What temperature must be maintained during the cropping period?
(vi) What is the average harvest period?
(vii) What is the approximate time taken to complete a cycle, from composting to harvesting?
Q-9 State whether the following statements are true or false.
(i) Yeast reproduces asexually by a process called conjugation.
(ii) Penicillin is an antibiotic of bacterial origin used to cure pneumonia.
(iii) The vaccine for tuberculosis is derived from a fungus.
(iv) Mushrooms are rich in proteins and contain more than 12 vitamins and minerals.
(v) Ephedrine is synthesized by yeast and is used to treat asthma.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 

Which of these would NOT be present in a bacterium cell?

(i)

Ribosome

(ii)

Nucleus

(iii)

Nucleoid

(iv)

Capsule
Q-2 

Which statement is TRUE for the process of decay?

(i)

Incomplete breakdown of organic matter

(ii)

Emits foul smell

(iii)

Complete breakdown of organic matter

(iv)

Both (a) and (b)
Q-3 

In which bacterial process are the complex substances converted into simpler substances?

(i)

Nitrogen fixation

(ii)

Denitrification

(iii)

Ammonification

(iv)

Both (b) and (c)
Q-4 

Which is the inflammable constituent of Gobar gas?

(i)

Methane

(ii)

Nitrogen

(iii)

Oxygen

(iv)

Carbon dioxide
Q-5 

Which group consists of symbiotic bacteria?

(i)

Azobacter

(ii)

Clostridium

(iii)

Rhizobium

(iv)

Both (a) and (b)
Q-6 

The production of ___________________ is NOT a medicinal use of bacteria.

(i)

Antibiotics

(ii)

Vaccines

(iii)

Serum

(iv)

Biological weapons
Q-7 

Antibiotics are not used to treat:

(i)

Diabetes

(ii)

Tuberculosis

(iii)

Typhoid

(iv)

Cholera
Q-8 

Vaccination provides _________________ immunity.

(i)

Active acquired

(ii)

Temporary passive

(iii)

Natural

(iv)

All of these
Q-9 

Select the true statement for serum:

(i)

It contains dead or weakened bacteria

(ii)

It provides active immunity

(iii)

It provides natural immunity

(iv)

It uses antitoxins made in another animal
Q-10 

Which is NOT a medicinal use of fungi?

(i)

Synthesis of fats and proteins

(ii)

Synthesis of vitamins and enzymes

(iii)

Production of antibiotics

(iv)

Processing of cheese
Q-11 

Fungi contribute to soil health in many ways. Select the true statement:

(i)

Absorb inorganic salts and prevent them from getting leached out

(ii)

Enrich the soil by decomposing dead plants and animals

(iii)

Fight diseases in plants caused by other soil fungi

(iv)

All the above are true statements
Q-12 

Bacteria and fungi cause much harm. Which of these harmful activity is specific to fungi?

(i)

Cause food spoilage

(ii)

Cause diseases in humans

(iii)

Cause diseases in plants and animals

(iv)

Cause tropical deterioration
Q-13 

Which is NOT a stage in mushroom cultivation?

(i)

Casing

(ii)

Transplanting

(iii)

Pinning

(iv)

Cropping
Q-14 

Which statement is true for making food last longer?

(i)

Use of irradiation

(ii)

By removing moisture from it

(iii)

Use of chemicals like sodium benzoate

(iv)

All are correct statements
Q-15 

Which statement is TRUE for Phase II composting stage in mushroom farming?

(i)

It is temperature dependent

(ii)

Ammonia and carbon dioxide are produced

(iii)

Insect pests are destroyed

(iv)

Both (a) and (c)
Chapter-9   Nutrition in Humans
Q-1 Answer the following questions

(a) What are nutrients? Name the three macronutrients.

(b) Give two examples of foods rich in each of the macronutrients named in (a).

(c) What are micronutrients?

(d) Name the two classes of micronutrients present in our food.

(e) What is a kilocalorie? Name the class of food that has the highest calorific value.

(f) What are proteins?

(g) Distinguish between the following pairs: (i) Essential amino acids and non-essential amino acids. (ii) Biologically adequate proteins and biologically inadequate proteins.

(h) Why does a 12 year old girl need more proteins than a boy of the same age?

(i) Why does a pregnant woman need more proteins than a non-pregnant woman?

(j) Describe a simple test to identify the presence of proteins in food.

(k) What are carbohydrates?

(l) State the important functions of carbohydrates.

(m) What are fats? Distinguish between saturated and unsaturated fats and give one example of each.

(n) Why are fats considered the chief energy producers in our body?

(o) Mention three functions of fats, other than as an energy source.

(q) What is cholesterol?

(r) Give an example of a food source that would produce blood cholesterol.

(s) Mention the health problems associated with intake of excess dietary cholesterol.

(t) Name three fatty acids and mention the food in which each is present.

(u) Give a simple test to identify the presence of fats in foods.

(v) Explain why the skin turns yellow if nitric acid spills onto it.

(w) What is the general role of minerals in the body?

(x) Name the two groups of essential minerals and give two examples of each.

(y) Mention three functions of water in our body.

(z) State the consequence of water starvation to the body.

Q-2 Answer the following questions

(1) What is a balanced diet? State the importance of a balanced diet.

(2) What is roughage? Name three food sources that provide roughage.

(3) Mention the importance of roughage in our diet.

(4) State the consequence of inadequate roughage in the diet.

(5) What is the general role of vitamins in the body?

(6) Why are vitamins now known by their chemical names, rather than by letters?

(7) Give the chemical name of the following vitamins: (i) Vitamin B (ii) Vitamin B6 (iii) Vitamin C (iv) Vitamin E (v) Vitamin K (vi) Vitamin D (vii) Vitamin B12 (viii) Vitamin B2

Q-3 Name the food group associated with the following functions:
(i) Providing energy
(ii) Growth and repair
Q-4 Name the food groups of which the following are the end products of digestion:
(i) Amino acids
(ii) Fatty acids and glycerol
(iii) Simple sugars
Q-5 Explain the role of proteins in:
(i) Regulating chemical reactions in the body.
(ii) Bringing about growth and repair.
(iii) Protecting the body.
(iv) In movement and locomotion.
(v) As a source of energy.
Q-6 Give the general formula and one example of each:
(i) A monosaccharide
(ii) A disaccharide
(iii) A polysaccharide
Q-7 What is the ultimate fate of the following carbohydrates ingested in the human body?
(i) Cellulose
(ii) Starch
Q-8 Name a reagent used to identify:
(i) Starch
(ii) Glucose
Q-9 State the specific role of the following minerals in our body and mention two food sources rich in the named mineral:
(i) Calcium
(ii) Sodium
(iii) Iron
(iv) Iodine
Q-10 Name two food sources rich in the following vitamins and state the disease/disorder caused due to its deficiency.
(i) Vitamin A
(ii) Vitamin B
(iii) Niacin
(iv) Folic acid
(v) Vitamin C
(vi) Vitamin D
Q-11 Name the vitamin associated with the following functions:
(i) Helps absorb iron from plant food.
(ii) Prevents the build up of toxic substances in the body.
(iii) Needed to form neurotransmitters.
(iv) Required for cell division, formation of DNA and RNA.
(v) Needed for normal blood clotting.
Q-12 Fill in the blanks:
(i) If food does not move easily along the intestines due to inadequate roughage in the diet, a condition called _______ arises.
(ii) The amount of energy expended by the body at rest in order to provide a minimal life-maintaining level of metabolism and functional activity is called _____________ ______________ .
(iii) Water loss exceeding _______ of body weight results in severe dehydration.
(iv) _______ are not destroyed by cooking.
(v) Vitamin _______ and vitamin _______ are water soluble.
(vi) Diseases that result from nutritional vitamin deficiencies are known as ____________ .
(vii) Excess of ______ in the diet has been linked with Alzheimer's disease.
(viii) Excess of _______ in the diet could lead to fluid retention and high blood pressure.
(ix) Excessive intake of ________ can affect the body's ability to use calcium and inhibit the absorption of magnesium.
(x) The vitamin _______ is needed to produce energy in cells and to form neurotransmitters.
Q-13 Answer the following questions

(1) State the differences between homodont teeth and heterodont teeth.

(2) State three characteristics of the human teeth.

(3) Name the four types of permanent teeth found in humans.

(4) State the function of the teeth named in (3). Also state how each is adapted to perform its function.

(5) Name all the parts that belong to the digestive system only.

(6) Name all the parts that belong to the alimentary canal only.

(7) With the help of a neat sketch, show the anatomical relation between the liver, gall bladder, pancreas and the duodenum. Label the parts.

(8) Explain the function of the liver, gall bladder and pancreas with respect to digestion taking place in the duodenum.

(9) What is meant by peristalsis?

Q-14 Explain the following terms:
(i) Permanent teeth
(ii) Deciduous teeth
(iii) Wisdom teeth
Q-15 Explain why:
(i) The ileum is long, narrow, coiled and internally furrowed and covered with numerous finger-like projections.
(ii) A piece of bread left in the mouth for a while tastes sweet.
Q-16 Name one enzyme responsible for each of the following conversions:
(i) Proteins/peptides -------------> amino acid
(ii) Fats --------------> fatty acid
(iii) Proteins -------------------> proteoses, peptones, amino acid
(iv) Lactose ---------------------> glucose, galactose
(v) Starch ----------------> maltose
Q-17 When faeces are passed out of the body, this is called:
(i) Ingestion
(ii) Egestion
(iii) Indigestion
(iv) Ejection
(v) Digestion
(vi) Assimilation
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 

What is the function of food?

(i)

To provide energy for metabolic processes

(ii)

For growth and repair of cells

(iii)

To develop immunity against disease

(iv)

All of these
Q-2 

Which can be classified as a 'body building' food?

(i)

Milk and eggs

(ii)

Fats and oil

(iii)

Rice and wheat

(iv)

Fruits, vegetables
Q-3 

Biologically adequate proteins are present in:

(i)

Milk, meat, eggs

(ii)

Beans, peas, gram

(iii)

Potato, mushroom

(iv)

Both (a) and (c)
Q-4 

The calorific value of protein is:

(i)

4.1 kcal

(ii)

8.2 kcal

(iii)

9.3 kcal

(iv)

6.1 kcal
Q-5 

What is true about the cellulose ingested as food?

(i)

Not digestible

(ii)

Forms roughage

(iii)

It is a carbohydrate

(iv)

All are true
Q-6 

Fats are solvent for the following vitamins:

(i)

A, D, E, K

(ii)

A, B, D, E

(iii)

A,B,C,D

(iv)

A,C,E,K
Q-7 

High sodium in the blood can lead to:

(i)

Kidney failure

(ii)

Hypertension

(iii)

Fluid retention

(iv)

All of these
Q-8 

The building block of body fat is:

(i)

Fatty acid

(ii)

Glycerol

(iii)

Amino acids

(iv)

Both (a) and (b)
Q-9 

Low calcium levels in the body can result in:

(i)

Soft and brittle bones

(ii)

Muscle weakness

(iii)

Back pain

(iv)

All of these
Q-10 

A deficiency of iodine in our body can result in:

(i)

Beriberi

(ii)

Osteoporosis

(iii)

Simple goitre

(iv)

Pellagra
Q-11 

Symptoms of xerophthalmia:

(i)

Poor vision at night

(ii)

Skin turns yellow

(iii)

Heart becomes enlarged

(iv)

Loss of sensation in hands and feet
Q-12 

Food rich in Vitamin C:

(i)

Fats and oils

(ii)

Milk and meat

(iii)

Seeds and nuts

(iv)

Fruits and vegetables
Q-13 

Which of the following is a function of water in our body?

(i)

It enables chemical reactions by acting as a solvent for enzymes

(ii)

It regulates body temperature

(iii)

It transports dissolved nutrients to the tissues and organs of the body.

(iv)

All of the above
Q-14 

To enable normal clotting of blood is the function of:

(i)

Vitamin E

(ii)

Vitamin K

(iii)

Folic acid

(iv)

Biotin
Q-15 

Which statement is NOT true for Kwashiorkor?

(i)

An inability to grow or gain weight

(ii)

Swelling of the hands and feet

(iii)

Bulging or swollen stomach

(iv)

The skin hangs loose and ribs become prominent
Q-16 

Which is not part of the alimentary canal?

(i)

Mouth

(ii)

Pancreas

(iii)

Oesophagus

(iv)

Pharynx
Q-17 

Which conversion of food is not a chemical process?

(i)

Fats to fatty acid

(ii)

Chyme to chyle

(iii)

Protein to peptone

(iv)

Starch to glucose
Q-18 

Which group of enzyme digests carbohydrates?

(i)

Proteolytic

(ii)

Amylolytic

(iii)

Lipolytic

(iv)

Both (b) and (c)
Q-19 

Which statement is NOT true for the human canine teeth?

(i)

There are two in each jaw

(ii)

Used for tearing fleshy food

(iii)

They are the smallest permanent teeth

(iv)

They have one root
Q-20 

Which of these is not a characteristic of human teeth?

(i)

Heterodont

(ii)

Homodont

(iii)

Diphyodont

(iv)

Thecodont
Q-21 

No chemical digestion takes place in this part of the alimentary canal:

(i)

Colon

(ii)

Jejunum

(iii)

Oesophagus

(iv)

All of these
Q-22 

Which is a constituent of gastric juice?

(i)

Hydrochloric acid

(ii)

Nitric acid

(iii)

Sulphuric acid

(iv)

Carbonic acid
Q-23 

Which statement is NOT true about enzymes?

(i)

Enzymes are biocatalysts

(ii)

Enzymes are destroyed by heating

(iii)

All enzymes are carbohydrates

(iv)

Enzymes act best at a particular pH
Q-24 

Which statement is NOT true for bile?

(i)

It emulsifies fats

(ii)

It creates an alkaline environment

(iii)

It is produced by the gall bladder

(iv)

It is stored in the gall bladder
Q-25 

Which is NOT a pancreatic enzyme?

(i)

Amylopsin

(ii)

Erepsin

(iii)

Trypsin

(iv)

Steapsin
Q-26 

Which is NOT a function of the liver?

(i)

To convert and store excess glucose as glycogen

(ii)

To break down excess amino acids and convert it into urea

(iii)

Stores excess water and regulates blood volume

(iv)

None of the above
Q-27 

The following conversion takes place in the ileum:

(i)

Starch to maltose

(ii)

Protein to peptones and peptides

(iii)

Sucrose to glucose and fructose

(iv)

Fats are emulsified
Q-28 

Which is a bile pigment?

(i)

Biliverdin

(ii)

Creatinine

(iii)

Bilirubin

(iv)

Both (a) and (c)
Q-29 

Fatty acids and glycerol are transported from the intestines to the heart by vessels known as:

(i)

Capillaries

(ii)

Lymphatic vessel

(iii)

Venules

(iv)

Arterioles
Q-30 

The hepatic portal vein carries:

(i)

Nutrients and toxins to the liver

(ii)

Nutrients from the liver to the intestines

(iii)

Urea from the liver to the kidneys

(iv)

Bile from the liver to the gall bladder
Q-31 

Which of the following is not a part of the pathway of food through the digestive tract?

(i)

Pharynx

(ii)

Oesophagus

(iii)

Larynx

(iv)

Stomach

(v)

Mouth
Q-32 

What structure prevents a bolus from entering the trachea?

(i)

Larynx

(ii)

Epiglottis

(iii)

Tongue

(iv)

Tonsils

(v)

Pharynx
Q-33 

Which of the given answer choices is not a function of the liver?

(i)

Production of glycogen

(ii)

Detoxification

(iii)

Production of bile

(iv)

Storage of vitamins

(v)

Production of insulin

(vi)

Deamination
Chapter-10   The Skeletal System
Q-1 Answer the following questions

(1) State five functions of the skeletal system.

(2) Name the different types of bones and give one example of each.

(3) State the function of the axial skeleton.

(4) Name the kind of joint in the human skeleton in which the ends of the two joining bones are lubricated by a fluid. Give two examples of such a joint.

(5) State three functions of muscles.

(6) Explain with the help of suitable examples the terms 'agonist' and 'antagonist' muscles.

(7) In producing a body movement, bones act as levers and joints act as fulcrums. Illustrate with an example.

Q-2 Match the elements of column A with elements of column B.
Q-3 State the type of movement allowed by the following joints and give one example of each:
(i) Gliding joint
(ii) Ball and Socket joint
(iii) Pivot joint
(iv) Hinge joint
Q-4 Give the number of bones present in the following:
(i) True ribs
(ii) Auditory ossicles
(iii) Lumbar vertebrae
(iv) Pectoral phalanges
(v) Carpals
(vi) Tarsals
Q-5 Explain briefly:
(i) Old people are more susceptible to fractures.
(ii) Shivering occurs when outside temperatures are low.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 

Which is not a function of the skeletal system?

(i)

Storage of minerals

(ii)

Temporary storage of excretory products

(iii)

Formation of blood cells

(iv)

Give support and facilitate movement
Q-2 

Which statement is NOT true for bone?

(i)

Bone is made up of living tissue

(ii)

Collagen is the organic constituent of bone

(iii)

Calcium is a mineral constituent of bone

(iv)

All are true
Q-3 

Which is a characteristic of flat bones?

(i)

They do not have bone marrow cavity

(ii)

They have marrow

(iii)

Provide extensive area for muscle attachment

(iv)

All of these
Q-4 

Which is an example of irregular bone?

(i)

Facial bones

(ii)

Bones of vertebra

(iii)

Carpals of the wrist

(iv)

Both (a) and (b)
Q-5 

The axial skeleton does not include:

(i)

Rib cage

(ii)

Pelvic girdle

(iii)

Cranium

(iv)

Sternum
Q-6 

Which is NOT a function of the curved vertebral column?

(i)

Helps maintain balance in an upright position

(ii)

Curves absorb shock from walking

(iii)

Protects the column from fracture

(iv)

All are true statements
Q-7 

The total number of bones in the appendicular skeleton is:

(i)

80

(ii)

206

(iii)

162

(iv)

126
Q-8 

Which statement is NOT true about the axial skeleton?

(i)

It forms the vertical axis of the body

(ii)

It helps maintain upright posture

(iii)

It transmits weight from head to lower parts

(iv)

It includes the girdle bones
Q-9 

Which statement is NOT true for joints?

(i)

It is a point of contact between bones

(ii)

It acts as the fulcrum in producing movement

(iii)

Synovial joints are freely movable

(iv)

Fibrous joints are freely movable
Q-10 

Which statement is NOT true for muscles? A muscle that:

(i)

Bends a joint is called flexor

(ii)

Bends a joint is called extensor

(iii)

Contracts to bring movement is called agonist

(iv)

Straightens a joint is called extensor
Q-11 

Which of the following constitute bone tissue?

(i)

Compact bone

(ii)

Marrow

(iii)

Periosteum

(iv)

All of these
Q-12 

Which of these are immovable joints?

(i)

Bones of skull

(ii)

Root of the teeth

(iii)

Between vertebra

(iv)

Both (a) and (b)
Q-13 

Types of synovial joints are:

(i)

Pivot joint

(ii)

Plane joint

(iii)

Hinge joint

(iv)

All of these
Q-14 

Which is a true statement about bones and joints in the human body?

(i)

Knee joint is the largest joint

(ii)

Femur is the strongest bone

(iii)

Kneecap and femur form a gliding joint

(iv)

All these statements are true
Q-15 

Which is a function of muscles?

(i)

Help to maintain body posture

(ii)

Produce body heat

(iii)

Bring about motion through contractions

(iv)

All these are functions of the muscle
Chapter-11   The Skin
Q-1 State the location and important functions of the following:
(i) Malpighian layer
(ii) Sebaceous gland
(iii) Sweat gland
(iv) Hair
(v) Subcutaneous fat layer
(vi) Stratum corneum
Q-2 Differentiate between:
(i) Vasodilation and Vasoconstriction
(ii) Sweat and Sebum
(iii) Dermis and Epidermis
(iv) Meissner's corpuscle and Pacinian corpuscle
(v) Heat cramp and Heat stroke
(vi) Eccrine sweat gland and Apocrine sweat gland
Q-3 Answer the following questions
(1). Explain why we sweat excessively when walking or exercising outside on a hot day.
(2). A superficial cut of the skin with a knife causes it to bleed. Which layer of the skin must have been cut for it to bleed?
Q-4 Fill in the blanks:
(i) The circular pigmented region around the nipple is called the _____ .
(ii) Blood vessels are absent in the _____ of the skin.
(iii) _____ is the only living tissue of the hair.
(iv) Nails are composed of three main parts, _____ , _____ and _____ .
(v) The temperature regulating centre is a region in the brain called the ________ .
(vi) The normal body temperature in humans is _______ .
(vii) The various ways by which the body loses heat are through the ________, ____________, ___________and _____ .
(viii) Goose flesh is caused due to the contraction of ________ muscle.
(ix) Mammary glands are modified ___________ glands.
(x) The secretion and ejection of milk from the milk ducts is called _______ .
Q-5 State whether the following statements are True or False. Correct the incorrect statements.
(i) Cell division takes place in the epidermis layer of the skin.
(ii) The oldest cells of the epidermis will be found in the Stratum Corneum.
(iii) Acne is caused due to clogged apocrine glands.
(iv) Hair grows out from a tube called the shaft.
(v) The hard outer part of the nail is made up of keratinized cells.
(vi) Keratin is a waterproofing protein formed in the layer below the cornified layer.
(vii) The malpighian layer forms skin derivatives like sweat gland, sebaceous gland, hair follicle.
(viii) Heat loss from the skin takes place only by evaporation of sweat.
(ix) Sweat glands extract more water and salts from the blood when outside temperatures are low.
(x) The milk-secreting cell in the mammary glands is the areola.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 

Which is not a function of the skin?

(i)

Protect against UV rays of the Sun

(ii)

Regulate body temperature

(iii)

Synthesize Vitamin K

(iv)

Protect the body from dehydration
Q-2 

Which is NOT a skin derivative?

(i)

Sweat gland

(ii)

Sebaceous gland

(iii)

Salivary gland

(iv)

Mammary gland
Q-3 

Which is NOT a part of the epidermis?

(i)

Cornified layer

(ii)

Malpighian layer

(iii)

Granular layer

(iv)

Subcutaneous layer
Q-4 

Which statement is NOT true about the Malpighain layer?

(i)

Produces cells to replace worn out cells

(ii)

Regulates body temperature

(iii)

Protects the body against harmful UV rays

(iv)

Gives colour to the skin
Q-5 

Which is NOT a function of the epidermis?

(i)

Sense perception

(ii)

Thermoregulation

(iii)

Produce melanin

(iv)

Nourish the skin
Q-6 

Which is NOT present in the reticular region of the dermis?

(i)

Sweat gland

(ii)

Hair follicle

(iii)

Sebaceous gland

(iv)

None of these
Q-7 

Which statement is NOT true about hair?

(i)

The bulb is the only living tissue of the hair

(ii)

Blood vessels are present in the papilla

(iii)

Hair is associated with sweat glands

(iv)

Hair is associated with sebaceous glands
Q-8 

Excess secretion of sebum can cause:

(i)

Acne

(ii)

Blackheads

(iii)

Pimples

(iv)

All of these
Q-9 

Which of these are found in sebum?

(i)

Fats

(ii)

Cholesterol

(iii)

Proteins

(iv)

All of these
Q-10 

Sweat duct is the ________________________ part of the sweat gland.

(i)

Sensory

(ii)

Excretory

(iii)

Secretary

(iv)

Follicular
Q-11 

Which feature is NOT associated with eccrine sweat glands?

(i)

Fatty sweat

(ii)

Watery sweat

(iii)

Sweat pore

(iv)

Present on palms
Q-12 

Which of these is never present in sweat?

(i)

Urea

(ii)

Uric acid

(iii)

Cholesterol

(iv)

Ammonia
Q-13 

Which is NOT a true statement about nails?

(i)

The nail plate is made of keratinized cells

(ii)

Nail is a useful tool for peeling

(iii)

The nail bed produces new cells

(iv)

The nail matrix produces new cells
Q-14 

Which is NOT true about the mammary gland?

(i)

Mammary glands are modified sebaceous glands

(ii)

Lactation is the chief function of the mammary gland

(iii)

Milk secreting cells are called alveoli

(iv)

Alveoli convey the milk into the mammary ducts
Q-15 

Which is a true statement about vasodilation?

(i)

Peripheral blood vessels of the skin widen

(ii)

Peripheral blood vessels of the skin constrict

(iii)

Occurs when outside temperatures are low

(iv)

Sweat production is reduced
Chapter-12   The Respiratory System
Q-1 Differentiate between:
(i) Pulmonary respiration and Tissue respiration
(ii) Right lung and Left lung
(iii) Trachea and Oesophagus
(iv) Larynx and Pharynx
(v) Composition of Inspired air and Expired air
(vi) Composition of Alveolar air and Expired air
(vii) Hypoxia and Asphyxia
(viii) Vital Lung Capacity and Total Lung Capacity
(ix) Glycolysis and Krebs Cycle
(x) Aerobic respiration and Anaerobic respiration
Q-2 Answer the following questions

(1) List three requirements of a good respiratory surface.

(2) Compare the respiratory mechanism in green plants with that of a mammal.

Q-3 State the function of:
(i) Pulmonary artery
(ii) Epiglottis
(iii) Haemoglobin
(iv) Ciliated epithelium lining the respiratory tract
(v) The pleural fluid
(vi) Carbonic anhydrase
(vii) Olfactory epithelium
(viii) C-shaped cartilage in the trachea
(ix) Incomplete rings of cartilage in the trachea and bronchi.
Q-4 In each of the following cases, pick out one term which includes the other three:
(i) glucose, oxygen, energy, oxidation
(ii) ethyl alcohol, carbon dioxide, anaerobic respiration, oxygen absent
(iii) diffusion, respiratory gases, alveoli, capillary network
(iv) respiratory tract, trachea, bronchus, alveolus
Q-5 Write the approximate values of the following, in the units specified:
(i) Tidal air (mL)
(ii) Oxygen in alveolar air. (percentage)
(iii) Carbon dioxide in inspired air. (percentage)
(iv) Total number of alveoli in a normal adult. (millions)
(v) Volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximal expiration. (litres)
(vi) Altitude above which dizziness and blackouts are common. (metres)
Q-6 Name:
(i) A respiratory pigment.
(ii) An animal and a plant that respire anaerobically.
(iii) The condition in which the oxygen supply to the respiratory system is cut off.
(iv) The parts that belong to the respiratory tract.
(v) The outer membrane enveloping the lungs.
(vi) The inner membrane enveloping the lungs.
(vii) The part of the tidal air that effectively takes part in the gaseous exchange in the lungs.
(viii) The part of the brain where the respiratory centre is located.
(ix) The small amount of air inhaled that remains in the respiratory tract but does not take part in the gaseous exchange.
Q-7 Name the part(s) of the respiratory tract that:
(i) Serves as a common passage for food and air.
(ii) Is composed of a single layered epithelial tissue.
(iii) Has cartilagenous rings.
(iv) Is lined with ciliated epithelium.
(v) Is lined with hair.
(vi) Encloses the vocal cords.
(vii) Constitutes the ultimate passages of the tract.
(viii) Are formed by the division of the wind pipe as they enter the lungs.
(ix) Is involved in the process of gaseous exchange with the lungs.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 

Which is statement is NOT true about pulmonary respiration? Gaseous exchange takes place

(i)

Between the atmosphere and alveolar air

(ii)

Between the blood and the body tissues

(iii)

Between the blood capillaries of lungs and alveolar air

(iv)

In association with the respiratory tract, lungs, thorax and diaphragm
Q-2 

The compound formed between carbon dioxide and haemoglobin is ___________ .

(i)

Carbaminohaemoglobin

(ii)

Oxyhaemoglobin

(iii)

Carbamine

(iv)

Carboxyhaemoglobin
Q-3 

Select the incorrect statement:

(i)

Glycolysis is an aerobic process

(ii)

Glycolysis is an anaerobic process

(iii)

Krebs cycle is an aerobic process

(iv)

Lactic acid is formed in anaerobic respiration
Q-4 

Which term applies to anaerobic respiration?

(i)

lntramolecular respiration

(ii)

Lactic acid fermentation

(iii)

Anoxybiotic respiration

(iv)

All of these
Q-5 

Which is NOT a part of the respiratory tract?

(i)

Lung

(ii)

Nose

(iii)

Larynx

(iv)

Pharynx
Q-6 

Which is a true statement about the alveolus?

(i)

Thin walled

(ii)

Easily distensible

(iii)

Moist lining

(iv)

All are true
Q-7 

Which is a pleural membrane?

(i)

Visceral

(ii)

Parietal

(iii)

Pericardium

(iv)

Both (a) and (b)
Q-8 

Which is NOT true about inspiration?

(i)

Rib cage is depressed

(ii)

Diaphragm contracts

(iii)

lntercostal muscles contract

(iv)

Rib cage is raised
Q-9 

Tidal volume is:

(i)

Dead space air + Alveolar air

(ii)

Vital capacity + Residual volume

(iii)

lnspiratory Reserve Volume + Expiratory RV

(iv)

Alveolar air + Residual volume
Q-10 

Which is NOT true about alveolar air? It contains:

(i)

Less oxygen than inspired air

(ii)

More oxygen that inspired air

(iii)

More carbon dioxide than inspired air

(iv)

Less oxygen than expired air
Q-11 

The respiratory centre is located in:

(i)

Hypothalamus

(ii)

Medulla oblongata

(iii)

Cerebrum

(iv)

Cerebellum
Q-12 

The respiratory cycle consists of:

(i)

Inspiration

(ii)

Expiration

(iii)

Respiratory pause

(iv)

All of these
Q-13 

During expiration, the alveolar pressure:

(i)

Is greater than atmospheric pressure

(ii)

Is less than atmospheric pressure

(iii)

Is equal to atmospheric pressure

(iv)

None of these
Q-14 

Which is an example of hypoxia?

(i)

Choking

(ii)

Asthma

(iii)

Drowning

(iv)

Both (a) and (c)
Q-15 

Oxygen saturation level __________ is a sign of hypoxia.

(i)

Below 90-92%

(ii)

Between 94-97%

(iii)

Between 95-97%

(iv)

Above 98%
Chapter-13   Health and Hygiene
Q-1 Answer the following questions

(1) Differentiate between communicable diseases and non-communicable diseases.

(2) Classify the following under communicable diseases and non-communicable diseases. Cold, conjunctivitis, chicken pox, cancer, Coronary heart disease, allergy, deficiency diseases, measles

(3) Explain briefly two ways by which infectious diseases spread.

Q-2 Explain briefly:
(i) We should cover our mouth and nose while coughing or sneezing.
(ii) The skin must be kept clean.
(iii) Biting of nails must be strictly avoided.
(iv) Eating sweets in between meals should be avoided.
(v) We must wash our hand thoroughly before using it for eating food.
Q-3 List three ways:
(i) The breeding of flies can be controlled.
(ii) Healthy food standards can be maintained.
(iii) The eyes can be protected from infection.
(iv) Body odour can be prevented.
Q-4 Name/State:
(i) The expanded form of AIDS.
(ii) A bacterial disease transmitted through food and water contaminated by flies.
(iii) A chemical contained in shampoo to kill nits.
(iv) A disease caused by a protozoan.
(v) A disease transmitted by the bite of the Anopheles mosquito.
(vi) A fish used as a means of biological control of mosquitoes.
(vii) A liquid insecticide sprayed over ponds and marshy land to destroy mosquito larva.
(viii) A chemical most commonly used in the control of roaches.
(ix) The best way to prevent viral diseases.
Q-5 Match the item in column A with item in column B.
Q-6 Select all the statements that are true for infectious disease.
(i) It is caused due to attack of pathogens.
(ii) Community hygiene is ineffective in reducing the occurrence of these diseases.
(iii) Diabetes and scurvy are examples of infectious disease.
(iv) Transmission of the disease takes place from parent to offspring.
(v) Transmission of the disease takes place through direct contact or some medium like air, water, vectors.
Q-7 State whether the following statements are true or false:
(i) An epidemic is a regularly found disease among particular people or in a certain region.
(ii) In an endemic, the rate of infection continuously increases.
(iii) The body responds to bacterial infection by producing antibodies and antitoxins.
(iv) Latent tuberculosis is not transmissible from person to person.
(v) In order to prevent tapeworm infection, vegetables should be properly cooked.
(vi) HIV is only transmitted by an exchange of body fluids from an infected person to another.
(vii) A bacteriophage is a virus that infects and replicates within bacteria.
(viii) The main symptoms of malaria are high fever, headache and violent shivering (rigours).
(ix) Hepatitis is the inflammation of the kidney.
(x) Amoebic dysentery is a water-borne disease.
Q-8 Fill in the blanks:
(i) The scientific study of the causes of disease is known as __________ .
(ii) Two of the most widespread problems associated with hair that can be effectively checked by proper hygiene, are that of __________ and __________ .
(iii) Contamination of drinking water can cause an epidemic of ___________________, ______________________ and _________ .
(iv) Unwanted solid refuse can be disposed on land by __________ .
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 

Which statement is true about hygiene? Hygiene is a series of practices performed:

(i)

To preserve and maintain health

(ii)

To prevent the spread of diseases

(iii)

To find a cure for diseases

(iv)

Both (a) and (b)
Q-2 

Which of the following is NOT a part of personal hygiene?

(i)

Maintaining the body's cleanliness

(ii)

Rest and exercise

(iii)

Nourishing diet to develop immunity

(iv)

Maintaining clean water supply
Q-3 

Which of the following is a part of community hygiene?

(i)

Proper disposal of sewage and waste

(ii)

Control of disease spreading agents

(iii)

Prevention of food adulteration

(iv)

All of these
Q-4 

Which of the following is a part of managing disease?

(i)

Building hospitals and clinics

(ii)

Training nurses and doctors

(iii)

Providing financial support to the sick

(iv)

All of these
Q-5 

Which of these is NOT a true statement?

(i)

Regular bathing with a mild soap keeps the skin free of dirt, grease and foul body odour

(ii)

While gardening or doing laundry, hands should be protected by wearing gloves

(iii)

Biting of nails is a good way to keep finger nails short

(iv)

Dandruff can be treated by washing hair with a shampoo containing selenium compounds
Q-6 

Select the correct statement for maintaining healthy teeth and gums

(i)

Chlorine should be added to water supplies

(ii)

Sweets should be eaten between meals

(iii)

Teeth need not be brushed daily

(iv)

Diet must include calcium and vitamin C
Q-7 

Which of the following eye problem is spread through contamination by hand or articles?

(i)

Glaucoma

(ii)

Conjunctivitis

(iii)

Cataract

(iv)

Night blindness
Q-8 

Which of these is NOT spread by drinking contaminated water?

(i)

Cholera

(ii)

Dysentery

(iii)

Chicken pox

(iv)

Hepatitis-A
Q-9 

Which of these are methods to control houseflies?

(i)

Keep garbage in closed bins until disposal

(ii)

Spray barns and stables with DDT

(iii)

In fields, lime should be added to manure

(iv)

All of these
Q-10 

The most commonly used chemical for roach control is:

(i)

Vinegar

(ii)

Soda bicarb

(iii)

Boric acid

(iv)

DDT
Q-11 

Which of these is not a deficiency disease?

(i)

Scurvy

(ii)

Rickets

(iii)

Malaria

(iv)

Beriberi
Q-12 

In India, ________________________ is an endemic disease.

(i)

Malaria

(ii)

Rabies

(iii)

Plague

(iv)

Polio
Q-13 

Which of these is a non-communicable disease?

(i)

Jaundice

(ii)

Measles

(iii)

AIDS

(iv)

COVID-19
Q-14 

Which of these disease is treated with antibiotics?

(i)

Typhoid

(ii)

Malaria

(iii)

AIDS

(iv)

Chicken pox
Q-15 

Filaria is spread by the __________________ mosquito.

(i)

Female anopheles

(ii)

Culex

(iii)

Male anopheles

(iv)

Aedes
Chapter-14   Aids to Health, Health Organisations
Q-1 Differentiate between:
(i) Antibody and Antigen
(ii) Vaccine and Serum
(iii) Innate immunity and Acquired immunity
(iv) Antiseptic and Disinfectant
(v) Active immunity and Passive immunity
(vi) B-lymphocyte and T-lymphocyte
Q-2 Match the items in Column A with appropriate items from column B:
Q-3 Fill in the blanks
(i) Antibodies are ____________ .
(ii) Antibodies are produced on exposure to _______ .
(iii) Antibodies are produced by __________ .
(iv) Antibodies act against a particular antigen. Thus, they are ________ .
Q-4 Name the following:
(i) Disease causing microorganisms.
(ii) Causative agent of AIDS.
(iii) Substances that stimulate antibody production.
(iv) Substances produced by living organisms that inhibit the growth of other living organisms.
(v) Organisation that provides relief to victims of natural calamaties like floods, etc. by procuring and supplying blood.
(vi) The International Organisation whose one function is to promote and support projects for research on diseases.
(vii) The antibiotic that was the first to be discovered.
Q-5 State whether the following statements are true or false. If false, correct and rewrite the statement.
(i) DDT belongs to the category of disinfectants.
(ii) B-cells fight infection by phagocytosis.
(iii) Certain antibiotic creams can also be used as antiseptics.
(iv) Small pox vaccine is prepared from virulent germs.
(v) Toxoid vaccines are made by purifying the extracts of toxins secreted by bacteria.
(vi) Active immunity means that antibodies are produced by the host body.
(vii) Passive immunity develops after having a disease.
(viii) Alexander Flemming first demonstrated the use of vaccines.
(ix) Active immunisation involves the use of serum.
(x) T-cells act as the body's first line of defence against infection.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 

Immunity is the ability of an organism:

(i)

To resist entry of pathogens

(ii)

To destroy pathogens that enter the body

(iii)

To avoid recurrence of a disease

(iv)

All of these
Q-2 

Which of the following is NOT a part of the human immune system?

(i)

White blood cells

(ii)

Lymph nodes

(iii)

The liver

(iv)

Bone marrow
Q-3 

Which of the following is NOT a part of the lymphatic system?

(i)

Spleen

(ii)

Tonsils

(iii)

Thymus

(iv)

None of these
Q-4 

Which of these act as a physical or mechanical barrier in preventing entry of pathogens?

(i)

Skin and hair

(ii)

Coughing

(iii)

Vomiting

(iv)

All of these
Q-5 

Which of these is a germ killing secretion produced by the body?

(i)

Gastric juice

(ii)

Lysozyme

(iii)

Mucus

(iv)

All of these
Q-6 

Select the true statement about how the body protects itself:

(i)

To fight viral infections, the body produces a high fever to inhibit the virus from reproducing

(ii)

Phagocytes in the blood and lymph digest the pathogens

(iii)

Antibodies present in the blood neutralise the antigens and render them harmless

(iv)

All the above are true statements
Q-7 

Which of these is a type of white blood cell?

(i)

Mast cells

(ii)

Macrophages

(iii)

Natural Killer cells

(iv)

All of these
Q-8 

Which is a characteristic of leucocytes?

(i)

Diapedesis

(ii)

Phagocytosis

(iii)

Produce toxins

(iv)

Both (a) and (b)
Q-9 

Which statement is true about lymphocytes?

(i)

Lymphocytes respond to specific antigens previously encountered in the body

(ii)

Lymphocytes produce inborn immunity

(iii)

B-cell lymphocytes target infected cells and destroy them before the viruses can reproduce

(iv)

T-cell lymphocytes produce antibodies and neutralise the pathogens
Q-10 

Which is a characteristic of antibodies?

(i)

They are proteins

(ii)

They are specific in their response

(iii)

They are produced on exposure to antigens

(iv)

All of these
Q-11 

Which of these is not an antiseptic?

(i)

Boric acid

(ii)

Lysol

(iii)

Tincture benzoin

(iv)

Hydrogen peroxide
Q-12 

Which is not a characteristic of Active Immunity?

(i)

Immune response is immediate

(ii)

Immune response is long lasting

(iii)

It is induced by infection or by vaccine

(iv)

Body uses own antibodies
Q-13 

Toxoid vaccine is used for ________________ .

(i)

Diphtheria

(ii)

Measles

(iii)

Whooping cough

(iv)

Typhoid
Q-14 

Which of these is an international health organisation?

(i)

Red Cross

(ii)

UNESCO

(iii)

WHO

(iv)

Both (a) and (b)
Q-15 

Antibiotics can be administered in the form of:

(i)

Pill

(ii)

Syrup

(iii)

Injection

(iv)

All of these
Chapter-15   Waste Generation and Management
Q-1 Answer the following questions

(1) What is waste?

(2) List the main sources of wastes based on origin.

(3) List out five types of waste materials generated in urban households.

(4) Differentiate between biodegradable and non-biodegradable waste. Give examples of each.

(5) List three hazardous wastes and explain the effect of these wastes on human health.

(6) What is E-waste? How are e-waste and radioactive wastes generated?

(7) Many countries have passed laws banning the use of plastic bags. Plastic bags have been now been replaced by paper bags for carrying groceries and other such items. Give a reason for this.

(8) What is waste management? Explain its importance.

(9) What are the different steps involved in waste management?

(10) Why is segregation of waste important before its disposal?

(11) What are sanitary landfills? State two advantages and two disadvantages of landfills.

(12) What is incineration?

(13) Name three types of waste that should be incinerated.

(14) What are the harmful by-products of incineration? How are they disposed off?

(15) What is composting? State its advantages.

(16) A biogas plant solves the fuel as well as environmental problems. Discuss.

(17) What is wastewater? List the different sources of wastewater.

(18) Explain how eutrophication and biomagnification are consequences of water bodies polluted by effluents.

(19) Name the main steps involved in effluent treatment and briefly state the significance of each step.

(20) What is meant by drainage water management? Explain how proper drainage systems help to remove surface or sub-surface water.

(21) Explain the importance of proper drainage system: a. On agricultural land. b. in towns and cities.

(22) Explain the use of Electrostatic precipitator and Wet scrubbers for managing air pollutants.

(23) What is meant by recycling? State the benefits of recycling waste.

(24) Household waste can be disposed of in an eco-friendly manner by following the steps given below: Step 1 : Segregation of the waste. Step 2: Use of separate dustbins. Step 3: Get the waste collected separately. State the significance of each step for the disposal of household waste.

Q-2 Classify the following substances as toxic and non-toxic wastes.
(i) Cow dung
(ii) Cardboard packets
(iii) Plastic
(iv) Computer mouse
(v) Injection syringe
(vi) Bandages
(vii) Thermocol pieces
(viii) Paints
(ix) Plaster of Paris Statues
(x) Banana peels
(xi) Pesticides
(xii) Television sets
Q-3 Name the wastes produced by the following industries:
(i) Thermal Power Plants
(ii) Plastic and Rubber Industry
(iii) Pharmaceuticals
(iv) Food Processing Industry
(v) Textile Industry
(vi) Petrochemical Industry
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 

Which statement is NOT true for waste management? Waste management:

(i)

Involves only the collection and transportation of waste material

(ii)

Helps to prevent spread of infectious diseases

(iii)

Helps to conserve natural resources by reusing and recycling waste substances

(iv)

Helps to reduce pollution of air, water and soil
Q-2 

Which of these is NOT an agricultural waste?

(i)

Carcass

(ii)

Pesticides

(iii)

Sewage

(iv)

Crop residues
Q-3 

Which is a biodegradable waste?

(i)

Plastics

(ii)

Metals

(iii)

Glass

(iv)

Animal excreta
Q-4 

Which is NOT a hazardous waste?

(i)

Radioactive matter

(ii)

Explosives

(iii)

Arsenic, mercury

(iv)

Electronic products
Q-5 

Kerbside collection of waste means that the waste bin is collected :

(i)

From each home individually

(ii)

From a specific location in the town or city

(iii)

From a predetermined spot outside the house

(iv)

By a collection truck that comes to the block and the bin is handed over to their worker
Q-6 

Which statement is true for segregating "wet" and "dry" waste? Segregating helps:

(i)

To identify items that can be reused

(ii)

To set aside items that can be recycled

(iii)

To facilitate onward disposal

(iv)

All these are true statements
Q-7 

Which is an advantage of disposing waste in a landfill?

(i)

All types of waste can be disposed

(ii)

Waste does not require further treatment

(iii)

Investment is low and land can be reclaimed

(iv)

All these are advantages of a landfill
Q-8 

Which is NOT an advantage of composting?

(i)

It acts as a natural fertiliser for crops

(ii)

It helps bind the soil and check soil erosion

(iii)

It needs large space and produces odour

(iv)

It improves the water holding capacity of soil
Q-9 

Which is NOT a part of the purification process of water for consumption?

(i)

Aeration

(ii)

Wet scrubbing

(iii)

Filtration

(iv)

Sterilisation
Q-10 

Which is NOT a source of wastewater?

(i)

Rain water

(ii)

Runoff from fields

(iii)

Water from toilets

(iv)

Water from factories
Q-11 

Proper drainage in fields helps to:

(i)

Prevent soil erosion

(ii)

Accumulate water soluble salts

(iii)

Remove surface water from fields

(iv)

Both (a) and (c) are correct
Q-12 

Vermiculture is the degradation of organic waste by:

(i)

Land snails

(ii)

Earthworms

(iii)

Symbiotic bacteria

(iv)

None of these
Q-13 

The end product left after bacterial decomposition of compost is called:

(i)

Biogas

(ii)

Humus

(iii)

Manure

(iv)

Slurry
Q-14 

Which is the outcome of discharging untreated liquid wastes into water bodies?

(i)

Eutrophication

(ii)

Biomagnification

(iii)

Putrefication

(iv)

Both (a) and (b)
Q-15 

Incineration is done at minimum ___ to burn all the organic matter and oxidise all foul smelling gases.

(i)

760°C

(ii)

670°C

(iii)

860°C

(iv)

960°C