Question bank

Chapter-1   Earth as a Planet
Q-1 Explain how the following factors have contributed to the development and evolution of life on Earth:
(i) Distance from the Sun
(ii) Presence of water
(iii) Presence of oxygen
(iv) Presence of atmosphere
Q-2 Answer the following questions

(1) Why is the earth called the 'blue, watery planet'?

(2) Describe briefly the Bedford level experiment to demonstrate the curvature of the Earth.

(3) Give the numerical difference between the equatorial diameter and the polar diameter.

(4) What is the biosphere?

(5) The Earth is an oblate spheroid. Explain the statement with reference to the underlined term.
Q-3 State whether the following statements are true or false. Correct the incorrect statements.
(i) The Earth came into existence 15 million years ago.
(ii) The radius of our Solar System is 5,900 million km.
(iii) Methane and ammonia are the main gases that make up the Sun.
(iv) A lunar eclipse can occur only on a New Moon day.
(v) The time taken for moon to complete one rotation and one revolution around the Earth is almost the same.
Q-4 State two observations each to illustrate that:
(i) The Earth is not flat.
(ii) The Earth is a sphere.
Q-5 Complete the following statistical data of the Earth.
Equatorial diameter -
Polar diameter -
Equatorial circumference -
Polar circumference -
Total surface area -
Volume -
Mass -
Density -
Q-6 Give two examples of each:
(i) Inferior planets
(ii) Inner planets
(iii) Superior planets
(iv) Outer planets
{iii) Superior planets
Q-7 Explain briefly how the following help support life on Earth:
(i) The lithosphere
(ii) The hydrosphere
(iii) The atmosphere
Q-8 Fill in the blanks:
(i) The Moon revolves around the Earth at a distance of about ________ km at an average speed of about _______ km/h.
(ii) A lunar eclipse occurs when the __________ is between the ______ and the ___________
(iii) A solar eclipse occurs the shadow of the ________ is cast on the _________ .
(iv) When the Moon is between the Earth and the Sun, the part of the Moon facing the Earth is in complete darkness. This position is called the ____________ .
(v) The Earth is the ________ largest planet in the Solar System and _______ in distance from the Sun.

(iv) When the Moon is between the Earth and the Sun, the part of the Moon facing the Earth is in complete darkness. This position is called the ____________ .

Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The Earth is shaped like a:

(i)

Circle

(ii)

Sphere

(iii)

Round

(iv)

Oblate spheroid
Q-2 The average distance of the Earth from the Sun:

(i)

148 million km

(ii)

138 million km

(iii)

175 million km

(iv)

185 million km
Q-3 The Earth is known as all of the following except:

(i)

Watery planet

(ii)

Blue planet

(iii)

Beautiful planet

(iv)

Only planet with life on it
Q-4 How many planets are there in our Solar System:

(i)

5

(ii)

9

(iii)

8

(iv)

7
Q-5 The hottest planet is:

(i)

Venus

(ii)

Earth

(iii)

Mars

(iv)

Mercury
Q-6 What makes life possible on the Earth?

(i)

Distance between the Earth and the Sun

(ii)

Presence of ozone

(iii)

Spherical shape of the Earth

(iv)

Presence of water
Q-7 Life zone on the Earth is found in the:

(i)

Hydrosphere

(ii)

Atmosphere

(iii)

Biosphere

(iv)

Lithosphere
Q-8 The atmosphere does all the following except:

(i)

It maintains an even temperature

(ii)

The oxygen in the atmosphere sustains life

(iii)

It creates gravity

(iv)

The carbon dioxide in the atmosphere is used by plants to make food
Q-9 The Earth's circumference was first calculated by:

(i)

Aristotle

(ii)

Ptolemy

(iii)

Eratosthenes

(iv)

Galileo
Q-10 Name the gas that absorbs the harmful ultraviolet rays of the sun:

(i)

Oxygen

(ii)

Carbon dioxide

(iii)

Ozone

(iv)

Nitrogen
Q-11 A lunar eclipse occurs when the _________________ is between ________________ and _________________ .

(i)

Sun, Earth, Moon

(ii)

Earth, Sun, Moon

(iii)

Moon, Sun, Earth

(iv)

None of these
Q-12 The main gases present on the Sun are:

(i)

Hydrogen and helium

(ii)

Hydrogen and ammonia

(iii)

Helium and oxygen

(iv)

Hydrogen and Oxygen
Q-13 The Moon revolves round the Earth in a ___________________ orbit.

(i)

Spherical

(ii)

Elliptical

(iii)

Oblate spheroid

(iv)

None of these
Q-14 At the North Pole, the Pole star can always be observed at:

(i)

45 °

(ii)

90 °

(iii)

60 °

(iv)

23½ °
Q-15 At the Equator, the angle of the Pole star is:

(i)

45°

(ii)

90°

(iii)

0 °

(iv)

23½ °
Chapter-2   Earth's Grid: Latitudes and Longitudes
Q-1 Answer the following questions

(1) What is a latitude?

(2) State the importance of latitudes.

(3) Mention two ways in which the latitude of a place can be determined.

(4) Explain with the help of appropriate sketches why direct (vertical) rays of the Sun are hotter than the slanting ones.

(5) What is a longitude?

(6) Name the longitude used as a fixed line of reference.

(7) What is the unit used to measure the distance between any two longitudes?

(8) Explain how the longitude helps determine the time of a place.

(9) What is the International Date Line?

(10) What is a heat zone?

(11) Name the three main heat zones and state the characteristic of each.

(12) In the circle given alongside, label the latitudes within which each heat zone is located. Also shade the region (in different colours) to show each heat zone.

Q-2 With the help of an atlas, state the latitude of the following places:
(i) The North Pole
(ii) Mumbai
(iii) New Delhi
(iv) London
(v) New York
(vi) Allahabad
Q-3 Explain the following terms:
(i) Angular distance
(ii) Zenith distance
(iii) Declination of the Sun
(iv) Relative location
(v) Absolute location
Q-4 Select the correct alternatives:
(i) There are ( 180/360) parallels of latitude.
(ii) Each parallel of latitude is a (circle/ellipse).
(iii) The (0°/90°) latitude is the largest (circle/ellipse) that can be drawn on a map.
(iv) Angular distance is measured in (miles/km/degrees).
(v) The parallel of latitude 23.5°N is also called the Tropic of (Cancer/Capricorn).
Q-5 Explain the following terms:
(i) Zenith
(ii) Local Time
(iii) Standard Time
(iv) Time Zones
(v) Greenwich Mean Time
(vi) Indian Standard Time
Q-6 Explain why:
(i) The temperature decreases as we go away from the Equator.
(ii) Places in the east see the Sun first.
(iii) For every 1 ° of longitude towards the west, a time of four minutes has to be subtracted.
(iv) The International Date Line is not a straight line.
Q-7 Fill in the blanks:
(i) A separation of one time zone indicates a difference of _______ hour between two places.
(ii) The USA has _______ time zones.
(iii) In India, the longitude of _______ passing through _______ is taken as the Standard Meridian.
(iv) ________ location indicates position based on the coordinates of a grid system.
(v) ________ location specifies a particular position or place relating it to another known position or place.
Q-8 Answer the Question

(1) When it is 10:00 a.m. at New Delhi (77°E), what is the local time at Shillong (92°E)?

(2) What is the time at Chicago (88°W) when it is 2:00 a.m. at Anchorage (150°W)?

(3) Calculate the time at Durban (30°E long.) when the time is 5:00 a.m. at New York (75°W).

(4) What is the time and day at Brazilia on longitude 44°W, when it is 7:00 p.m. on Monday at Darwin on longitude 1 30°E?

(5) Calculate the local time at Singapore (104°E) when it is 4:00 p.m. at Greenwich.

(6) When it is 2:00 p.m. in India, what is the Greenwich Mean Time? Show calculations to explain the difference in time.

(7) If the time is 10:00 p.m. on Tuesday, January 17 at Shanghai (120°E), what is the time and day at San Francisco ( 1 20°W)?

(8) What is the time and day at Mumbai (73°E), when it is 10:50 p.m. at Pittsburgh (80°W)?

(9) Calculate the location of a place where the local time is noon when it is 6:00 p.m. in Greenwich.

(10) What is the longitudinal location of a ship where the local time is 3:00 p.m. when it is 6:00 a.m. at Greenwich?

(11) When the time is 9:00 a.m. at Hamburg on longitude 10°E, the time at place A is 3:00 p.m. What is the longitude of place A?

(12) Calculate the longitude of a place where the time is 5:00 a.m., when the time is 10:00 p.m. at New Delhi on longitude 77°E.

(13) If the local time at Dallas (97°W) is 3: 10 a.m., the local time at Cape Town is 10:50 p.m. What is the longitude of Cape Town?

(14) What is the longitude of a place where the local time is 1 :15 p.m., when it is 4:00 a.m. at Toronto (79°W)?

(15) If the local time at Nairobi (37°E) is 10:00 a.m., when it is 2:36 a.m. in Montreal. Calculate the longitude of Montreal.

(16) What is the Standard Time Meridian of Kuwait if the 1ST is 2 ½ hours ahead of the time in Kuwait?

Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 What directions do latitudes measure from the Equator?

(i)

East and West

(ii)

East and North

(iii)

North and South

(iv)

West and South
Q-2 What directions do longitudes measure from the Prime Meridian?

(i)

East and West

(ii)

East and North

(iii)

North and South

(iv)

West and South
Q-3 The total number of latitudes are:

(i)

360

(ii)

270

(iii)

180

(iv)

90
Q-4 The total number of longitudes are:

(i)

360

(ii)

270

(iii)

180

(iv)

90
Q-5 All the following statements are true about the Equator except:

(i)

It is a major line of longitude

(ii)

It separates the Earth into the Northern and Southern hemispheres

(iii)

It measures 0°

(iv)

It is a major line of latitude
Q-6 What is not true about the Prime Meridian?

(i)

It is a major line of longitude

(ii)

It separates the Earth into the Eastern and Western hemisphere

(iii)

It measures 0°

(iv)

it is a major line of latitude
Q-7 What term means half of the Earth?

(i)

Grid

(ii)

Globe

(iii)

Longitude

(iv)

Hemisphere
Q-8 All lines of latitude can be called:

(i)

Parallels

(ii)

Meridians

(iii)

Perpendicular

(iv)

Equal
Q-9 All lines of longitude can be called:

(i)

Parallels

(ii)

Meridians

(iii)

Perpendicular

(iv)

Grid
Q-10 The region between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn known as:

(i)

Frigid Zone

(ii)

Temperate Zone

(iii)

Torrid Zone

(iv)

Stormy Zone
Q-11 What is the measurement in degrees for the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn:

(i)

Both are 0°

(ii)

90°N, 90°S

(iii)

66.5°N, 66.5°S

(iv)

23.5°N, 23.5°S
Q-12 What is the measurement in degrees for the Arctic Circle and the Antarctic Circle?

(i)

Both are 0°

(ii)

90°N, 90°S

(iii)

66.5°N, 66.5°S

(iv)

23.5°N, 3.5°S
Q-13 What kind of climate does the mid-latitude zone experience?

(i)

Cold throughout the year

(ii)

Rainy throughout the year

(iii)

Hot throughout the year

(iv)

Moderate temperatures
Q-14 The network of latitudes and longitudes is known as the:

(i)

Perpendicular measures

(ii)

Natural Regions

(iii)

Grid System

(iv)

Biomes
Q-15 Longitude lines divide the world into:

(i)

Natural Regions

(ii)

Climate Zones

(iii)

Time Zones

(iv)

Wind Belts
Q-16 The Sun is always in:

(i)

Revolution

(ii)

Motion

(iii)

The same place

(iv)

Rotation
Q-17 How long does the Earth take to complete one rotation on its axis?

(i)

24 hours

(ii)

24 days

(iii)

One month

(iv)

One year
Q-18 How long does the Earth take to complete one revolution around the Sun?

(i)

24 hours

(ii)

24 days

(iii)

One month

(iv)

One year

(v)

One Month
Q-19 The Earth has seasons because:

(i)

It moves around the moon on its tilted axis

(ii)

It moves around the Sun on its tilted axis

(iii)

The distance between the Earth and the Sun changes

(iv)

It rotates on its tilted axis
Q-20 What is the shape of the Earth's orbit around the Sun?

(i)

Circular

(ii)

Elliptical

(iii)

Ever changing

(iv)

Retrograde
Q-21 In which direction does the Earth rotate?

(i)

From east to west

(ii)

From west to east

(iii)

From north to south

(iv)

From south to north
Q-22 Day and night is caused by:

(i)

Revolution of the Earth around the Sun

(ii)

Rotation of the Earth on it tilted axis

(iii)

the eclipse of the sun by the moon

(iv)

Rise and fall of tides
Q-23 The imaginary line that divides the Earth into day and night is called:

(i)

Circle of light

(ii)

Circle of darkness

(iii)

Circle of Illumination

(iv)

Circle of day and night
Q-24 The rotation of the Earth causes all the following except:

(i)

Day and night

(ii)

Tides

(iii)

Circulation of air and water

(iv)

Seasons
Q-25 In which direction are winds and ocean currents deflected in the Northern Hemisphere?

(i)

Right

(ii)

Left

(iii)

Up

(iv)

Down
Q-26 Deflection of wind on the Earth's surface is caused by:

(i)

Revolution of the Earth

(ii)

Rotation of the Earth

(iii)

Gravitation pull of the moon

(iv)

Movement of the Sun
Q-27 When the Earth's axis is leaning towards the Sun, what is the season in the Northern Hemisphere?

(i)

Summer

(ii)

Fall

(iii)

Winter

(iv)

Spring
Q-28 During the Fall and the Spring Equinox, the North Pole is tilted:

(i)

Towards the Sun

(ii)

Away from the Sun

(iii)

Neither towards nor away from the Sun

(iv)

The Earth's axis is vertical
Q-29 During Spring Equinox, all the following is true except:

(i)

It occurs on March 21

(ii)

It is Spring in the Southern Hemisphere

(iii)

Equal days and nights equal world over

(iv)

The Sun shines directly at the Equator
Chapter-3   Motions of the Earth - Rotation and Revolution
Q-1 Answer the following questions

(1) Name and describe the three motions of the Earth.

(2) Describe three motions in which the Earth accompanies the Sun.

(3) Account for the fact that the distance between the Earth and the Sun is not constant.

(4) Mention five effects of the Earth's rotation.

(5) What is the Earth's axis?

(6) State the characteristics of the Earth's axis.

(7) Explain why day and night is always equal at the Equator throughout the year.

(8) Explain how the Earth's rotation accounts for the Oblate shape of the Earth and Tidal forces.

(9) Explain why the spot from where the Sun rises shifts a little everyday.

(10) What is the Coriolis effect?

(11) List three major differences between rotation and revolution.

Q-2 Explain the following terms:
(i) Orbit
(ii) Perihelion
(iii) Aphelion
(iv) Solstice
(v) Equinox
Q-3 Mention the dates that correspond with:
(i) The Vernal Equinox in the Northern Hemisphere.
(ii) The longest day in the Southern Hemisphere.
(iii) The Spring Equinox in the Northern Hemisphere.
(iv) The shortest day in the Northern Hemisphere.
(v) Equal day and night in the Southern Hemisphere.
Q-4 Label the Diagram.
(1) Label the diagram given below and use it to explain how the rotation of the Earth on its inclined axis causes day and night to be of unequal lengths at different places on the Earth.
(2)Label the diagram given below and use it to explain how the revolution of the Earth on its inclined axis causes day and night to be of unequal lengths in different places on the Earth at different times of the year.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The Sun is always in:

(i)

Revolution

(ii)

Motion

(iii)

The same place

(iv)

Rotation
Q-2 How long does the Earth take to complete one rotation on its axis?

(i)

24 hours

(ii)

24 days

(iii)

One month

(iv)

One year
Q-3 How long does the Earth take to complete one revolution around the Sun?

(i)

24 hours

(ii)

24 days

(iii)

One month

(iv)

One year

(v)

One Month
Q-4 The Earth has seasons because:

(i)

It moves around the moon on its tilted axis

(ii)

It moves around the Sun on its tilted axis

(iii)

The distance between the Earth and the Sun changes

(iv)

It rotates on its tilted axis
Q-5 What is the shape of the Earth's orbit around the Sun?

(i)

Circular

(ii)

Elliptical

(iii)

Ever changing

(iv)

Retrograde
Q-6 In which direction does the Earth rotate?

(i)

From east to west

(ii)

From west to east

(iii)

From north to south

(iv)

From south to north
Q-7 Day and night is caused by:

(i)

Revolution of the Earth around the Sun

(ii)

Rotation of the Earth on it tilted axis

(iii)

the eclipse of the sun by the moon

(iv)

Rise and fall of tides
Q-8 The imaginary line that divides the Earth into day and night is called:

(i)

Circle of light

(ii)

Circle of darkness

(iii)

Circle of Illumination

(iv)

Circle of day and night
Q-9 The rotation of the Earth causes all the following except:

(i)

Day and night

(ii)

Tides

(iii)

Circulation of air and water

(iv)

Seasons
Q-10 In which direction are winds and ocean currents deflected in the Northern Hemisphere?

(i)

Right

(ii)

Left

(iii)

Up

(iv)

Down
Q-11 Deflection of wind on the Earth's surface is caused by:

(i)

Revolution of the Earth

(ii)

Rotation of the Earth

(iii)

Gravitation pull of the moon

(iv)

Movement of the Sun
Q-12 When the Earth's axis is leaning towards the Sun, what is the season in the Northern Hemisphere?

(i)

Summer

(ii)

Fall

(iii)

Winter

(iv)

Spring
Q-13 During the Fall and the Spring Equinox, the North Pole is tilted:

(i)

Towards the Sun

(ii)

Away from the Sun

(iii)

Neither towards nor away from the Sun

(iv)

The Earth's axis is vertical
Q-14 During Spring Equinox, all the following is true except:

(i)

It occurs on March 21

(ii)

It is Spring in the Southern Hemisphere

(iii)

Equal days and nights equal world over

(iv)

The Sun shines directly at the Equator
Chapter-4   Structure and Material of the Earth
Q-1 Answer the following questions

(1) What is the lithosphere?

(2) What is the boundary between the crust and the mantle called?

(3) What is the rock cycle?

(4) Show schematically the rock cycle in nature?

(5) How are metamorphic rocks formed?

(6) Name the parent rock from which the following have been transformed. Also state the characteristic of each. (i) Slate (ii) Schist (iii) Marble (iv) Quartzite (v) Gneiss

(7) How are igneous rocks formed?

(8) Name the two types of igneous rocks.

(9) Define the rock cycle.

(10)Complete the rock cycle given below by putting appropriate arrows and labelling.
Q-2 Name the three main layers constituting the Earth's interior and compare them on the basis of:
(i) Thickness
(ii) Temperature
(iii) Composition
Q-3 Name the three types of rocks and compare them on the basis of:
(i) Formation
(ii) Occurrence
(iii) Composition
Q-4 Distinguish between the following pairs:
(i) Mineral and Ore
(ii) Extrusive rocks and Intrusive rocks
(iii) Hypabyssal rocks and Plutonic rocks
(iv) Compaction and Cementation
(v) Slate and Schist
(vi) Basalt and Granite
Q-5 Name the rock formed by the metamorphosis of the following:
(i) Basalt
(ii) Granite
(iii) Clay
(iv) Limestone
(v) Coal
(vi) Sandstone
Q-6 Explain the following terms:
(i) Dynamic Metamorphism
(ii) Contact Metamorphism
(iii) Regional Metamorphism
Q-7 Fill in the blanks:
(i) All igneous rocks are ________________ in nature.
(ii) Igneous rocks are also called ________________ rocks.
(iii) Igneous rocks make up _______________ % or more of the Earth's crust.
(iv) The main silicates in igneous rocks are _______________ , _______________ and ____________ .
(v) The two types of igneous rocks that form underground are ________________ and _______________ .
Q-8 Give one term (or phrase) for the following:
(i) The process that turns loose sediment into rock.
(ii) The slow squeezing of sediments to form hard rock.
(iii) The binding together of compacted sediment.
(iv) A sediment left behind when salty water evaporates.
(v) A boundary between one layer of sedimentary rock and another.
Q-9 Explain why:
(i) Seismic waves are used to study about the Earth's interior.
(ii) The density of rocks increases with depth.
(iii) lnspite of high temperatures in the interior of the Earth, rocks act as a solid.
(iv) Igneous rocks are also known as primary rocks.
(v) Sedimentary rocks are also known as stratified rocks.
(vi) The Earth is regarded as a magnet.
Q-10 Name the rock or mineral used in:
(i) Making pottery
(ii) Making glass
(iii) Building roads and houses
(iv) Making jewellery
(v) Manufacture of fertilisers
Q-11 Give two examples of each of the following:
(i) Precious metals
(ii) Gemstones
(iii) Chemically formed sedimentary rocks
(iv) Non-metallic minerals
(v) Ferrous metals
(vi) Extrusive igneous rocks
(vii) Fossil fuels
(viii) Non-ferrous metals
(ix) Mechanically formed sedimentary rocks
(x) Organically formed sedimentary rocks
Q-12 State the economic importance of each of the following rock/mineral:
(i) Clay
(ii) Silica
(iii) Granite
(iv) Coal & Petroleum
(v) Marble
(vi) Phosphates
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 What kind of rock is formed when fragmented pieces of rock material are transported by various agents of erosion that get settled over time?

(i)

Igneous rock

(ii)

Sedimentary rock

(iii)

Lithosphere

(iv)

Crystalline rock
Q-2 Which part of the Earth contains rocks?

(i)

Atmosphere

(ii)

Lithosphere

(iii)

Biosphere

(iv)

Hydrosphere
Q-3 Which of the following is not a layer of the Earth?

(i)

Crust

(ii)

Magma

(iii)

Mantle

(iv)

Core
Q-4 The thinnest layer of the Earth crust is

(i)

Crust

(ii)

Magma

(iii)

Mantle

(iv)

Core
Q-5 Name the two layers of the Earth's crust identified due to their chemical composition

(i)

Lithosphere Hydrosphere

(ii)

SIAL SIMA

(iii)

Mantle Core

(iv)

Crust Mantle
Q-6 Which layer is responsible for the Earth's magnetic field?

(i)

Magma

(ii)

Mantle

(iii)

Inner core

(iv)

Outer core
Q-7 Below the Earth's surface, how does the temperature change with depth towards the centre?

(i)

Decreases

(ii)

Increases

(iii)

Remains constant

(iv)

Varies according to seasons
Q-8 What are formed when magma is forced upwards to fill vertical cracks or fissures in existing rocks and hardens?

(i)

Necks

(ii)

Sills

(iii)

Dykes

(iv)

Laccoliths
Q-9 ______________________________ turns loose sediments into rocks.

(i)

Compaction

(ii)

Lithification

(iii)

Cementation

(iv)

Conglomeration
Q-10 Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(i)

Igneous - Basalt

(ii)

Sedimentary Rock - Sandstone

(iii)

Metamorphic - Granite

(iv)

Igneous Rock - Pumice
Q-11 What type of rock is marble?

(i)

Igneous rock

(ii)

Sedimentary rock

(iii)

Metamorphic rock

(iv)

Conglomerate rock
Q-12 Which one of the following is not an organically formed sedimentary rock?

(i)

Limestone

(ii)

Chalk

(iii)

Coal

(iv)

Sandstone
Q-13 Which of the following is not a metamorphic rock?

(i)

Marble

(ii)

Shale

(iii)

Slate

(iv)

Gneiss
Q-14 Name the type of rock formed by the alteration of the original structure due to excessive heat and pressure.

(i)

Igneous rock

(ii)

Sedimentary rock

(iii)

Metamorphic rock

(iv)

Plutonic rock
Q-15 What is the continuous process of transformation of old rocks into new ones called?

(i)

Metamorphism

(ii)

Sedimentation

(iii)

Compaction

(iv)

None of these
Chapter-5   Landforms of the Earth
Q-1 Answer the following questions

(1) What is a mountain? Name the main types of mountains.

(2) State briefly the importance of mountains.

(3) What is a plateau?

(4) Plateaus are a result of endogenous as well as exogenous processes. Justify this statement giving suitable examples.

(5) Based on location, there are three types of plateaus. Name them and give a brief description of each.

(6) What is a plain? State the importance of plains.

Q-2 Give one example of each of:
(i) Simple fold mountain
(ii) Complex fold mountain
(iii) Young fold mountain
(iv) Old fold mountain
(v) Block Mountain
(vi) Rift Valley
Q-3 Distinguish between the following pairs:
(i) Horst and Graben
(ii) Folding and Faulting
(iii) Normal fault and Reverse Fault
(iv) Anticline fold and Syncline fold
(v) Young fold mountains and Old fold mountains
(vi) Basin and Plateau
(vii) Peneplain and Pediplain
(viii) Dome mountain and Volcanic mountain
(ix) Structural Plain and Erosional Plain
(x) Alluvial Plain and Delta Plain
{v) Young fold mountains and Old fold mountains
Q-4 State whether the following statements are true or false. Correct the incorrect statements.
(i) The growth of mountain ranges occurs through volcanism or tectonic activity.
(ii) Mountains developed millions of years ago as a result of exogenous processes.
(iii) The Jura Mountains of France and Switzerland are an example of complex fold mountains.
(iv) The process of folding causes the width of the sedimentary rock zone to increase and its thickness to decrease.
(v) The Narmada Valley between the Vindhya and Satpura ranges in India occupies a rift valley.
{i) The growth of mountain ranges occurs through volcanism or tectonic activity.
Q-5 Give two examples of each:
(i) Young Fold Mountains
(ii) Old Fold Mountains
(iii) Block Mountain
(iv) Rift Valley
(v) Piedmont Plateau
(vi) Continental Plateau
(vii) Alluvial Plain
(viii) Lacustrine Plain
(ix) Volcanic Mountain
(x) Relict Mountains
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 Who came up with the Theory of Continental Drift?

(i)

Alfred Wegener

(ii)

Ancient Greeks

(iii)

Albert Einstein

(iv)

Isaac Newton
Q-2 The theory that states the Earth's outer layer moves slowly over the mantle sis known as the:

(i)

Theory of Relativity

(ii)

Theory of Motion

(iii)

Theory of Inertia

(iv)

Theory of Plate Tectonics
Q-3 The supercontinent that once existed was known as:

(i)

Pangea

(ii)

Gondwanaland

(iii)

Laurasia

(iv)

Great Land
Q-4 The border between two tectonic plates is known as the:

(i)

Fault

(ii)

Joint

(iii)

Border Line

(iv)

Boundary
Q-5 According to the Theory of Plate Tectonics, which of the following does not result from the movement of plates?

(i)

Volcanic activity

(ii)

Folding

(iii)

Faulting

(iv)

Glaciation
Q-6 A deep crack in the earth's surface is called a:

(i)

Valley

(ii)

Fault

(iii)

Ridge

(iv)

Line
Q-7 When geological processes from opposite directions act on each other, the rock layers within the Earth's crust:

(i)

Crack

(ii)

Fold

(iii)

Go under

(iv)

Become stronger
Q-8 Which of the following is an endogenous process?

(i)

Deposition

(ii)

Earthquakes

(iii)

Erosion

(iv)

Weathering
Q-9 What are the upfolds called that are formed by the horizontal compression of the Earth's crust?

(i)

Anticline

(ii)

Syncline

(iii)

Faults

(iv)

Dykes
Q-10 A rift valley is formed when the central block is moved:

(i)

Upwards

(ii)

Downwards

(iii)

Sideways

(iv)

Towards the centre
Q-11 The longest rift valley is found in:

(i)

Asia

(ii)

Africa

(iii)

Europe

(iv)

Australia
Q-12 By what process are block mountains formed?

(i)

Folding

(ii)

Faulting

(iii)

Earthquakes

(iv)

Volcanoes
Q-13 What are plateaus that have mountains surrounding them called?

(i)

Continental plateau

(ii)

Dissected plateau

(iii)

Lava plateau

(iv)

lntermontane plateau
Q-14 What are plains formed by the deposition of sediment in lakes known as?

(i)

Loess plain

(ii)

Flood plain

(iii)

Drift plain

(iv)

Lacustrine plain
Q-15 What are plains called that are formed by the deposition of alluvium at the mouths of rivers?

(i)

Alluvial plain

(ii)

Flood plain

(iii)

Coastal plain

(iv)

Delta Plain
Chapter-6   Volcanoes and Earthquakes
Q-1 Answer the following questions

(1) What is a plate boundary?

(2) Name the three types of plate boundaries and describe briefly how each is formed.

(3) What is a volcano?

(4) Why are volcanoes generally formed at plate boundaries or over hot spots?

(5) What is a caldera? How is it formed?

(6) Mention the three basic shapes of volcanoes that are recognised. Also state the main characteristics of each.

(7) Why do some volcanoes erupt violently?

(8) Mention three features associated with volcanoes.

(9) Mention two constructive and two destructive influences of volcanoes.

(10) What is an earthquake? How are they caused?

(11) Name the two scales of measurement used to describe earthquakes.

(12) List four effects produced on the Earth's crust due to earthquakes.

(13) Describe briefly the nature of damage produced by earthquakes exceeding magnitude 8 on the Richter scale.

(14) Name three types of landforms produced by earthquakes.

(15) Name the parts of India where earthquakes occur frequently.

Q-2 Describe briefly how each of the following volcanic features are formed:
(i) Batholith
(ii) Sill
(iii) Dyke
Q-3 Explain the following terms and give two examples of each:
(i) Active Volcano
(ii) Dormant Volcano
(iii) Extinct Volcano
Q-4 Explain the following terms associated with earthquakes:
(i) Seismic Waves
(ii) Seismic focus
(iii) Seismographs
(iv) Epicentre
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 What is the driving force for the movement of tectonic plates?

(i)

Gravity

(ii)

High Tides

(iii)

Upwelling of Ocean Currents

(iv)

Convection Currents deep in the mantle
Q-2 What is the opening through which lava flows out of a volcano?

(i)

Vent

(ii)

Crater

(iii)

Caldera

(iv)

Pipe
Q-3 Once magma reaches the earth's surface, it is called

(i)

Active magma

(ii)

Lava

(iii)

Molten magma

(iv)

Viscous Mass
Q-4 Volcanoes that have not erupted in recorded historical period are known as:

(i)

Sleeping volcanoes

(ii)

Resting volcanoes

(iii)

Sick volcanoes

(iv)

Extinct volcanoes
Q-5 Which of the following features are not associated with volcanic regions?

(i)

Sink holes

(ii)

Mud pools

(iii)

Hot springs

(iv)

Geysers
Q-6 Which of the following is not a type of volcano?

(i)

Fissure volcano

(ii)

Cinder volcano

(iii)

Shield volcano

(iv)

Armour volcano
Q-7 Which of the following is not a dormant volcano?

(i)

Mt. Fuji

(ii)

Mt. Kilimanjaro

(iii)

Mt. Vesuvius

(iv)

Mt. Elbrus
Q-8 Earthquakes occur when there is sudden release of stored up energy in the Earth's

(i)

Inner Core

(ii)

Outer Core

(iii)

Mantle

(iv)

Crust
Q-9 The point on the surface of the Earth that is directly above the origin of an earthquake is called:

(i)

Focus

(ii)

Centre

(iii)

Epicentre

(iv)

Fault
Q-10 What is the point of origin of the earthquake below the Earth's surface called?

(i)

Focus

(ii)

Centre

(iii)

Epicentre

(iv)

Fault
Q-11 What is the Richter scale?

(i)

A scale that measures the intensity of earthquakes

(ii)

A scale that measures the number of earthquakes

(iii)

A scale that predicts the changes of earthquakes

(iv)

A scale that lists the names of all earthquakes
Q-12 An instrument to measure earthquakes is known as a

(i)

Telegraph

(ii)

Seismograph

(iii)

Oscillograph

(iv)

Sonograph
Q-13 The amount of energy released by an earthquake is also known as the:

(i)

Unit

(ii)

Direction

(iii)

Scale

(iv)

Magnitude
Q-14 Which one the following is not a zone of frequent seismic activity?

(i)

Antarctica Ridge Belt

(ii)

The Circum-Pacific Belt

(iii)

The Mid-Atlantic Oceanic Ridge

(iv)

Alpine-Himalaya Belt
Q-15 Where is the Ring of Fire located?

(i)

Atlantic Plate

(ii)

Pacific Plate

(iii)

Arctic Plate

(iv)

Eurasian Plate
Chapter-7   Weathering
Q-1 Name the external force or process that produces each of the following features or landforms:
(i) Sand dunes
(ii) Cliffs
(iii) Soil
(iv) Loess plains
(v) Deltas
(vi) Peneplains
(vii) Escarpment
(viii) Valleys
(ix) Flood plains
(x) Beaches
Q-2 Answer the following questions

(1) Distinguish between Weathering and Erosion.

(2) Explain with suitable examples, the term gradation.

(3) Distinguish between aggradation and degradation.

(4) State whether the following are examples of aggradation or degradation: (i) A river deposits its load along the banks. (ii) A river flows down a mountain carrying silt. (iii) Formation of a sand dune. (iv) Formation of a plateau. (v) Formation of a peneplain.

(5) Distinguish between Mechanical Weathering and Chemical Weathering.

(6) State briefly the positive effects of weathering.

(7) What is a delta?

(8) Name the three types of deltas based on their shape and give one examples of each.

(9) State the importance of deltas.

(10) Why is erosion by wind more widespread in deserts?

(11) State how wind erosion differs from water and ice erosion.

(12) Name and describe the two processes by which wind erosion occurs.

(13) Mention two features formed by wind erosion.

(14) Distinguish between Barchan dunes and Seif dunes.

(15) Name the two main factors that contribute to erosion along the coast.

(16) Name three features produced by wind due to deposition.

Q-3 Explain how the following factors cause weathering:
( i) Temperature
(ii) Frost
(iii) Plants and burrowing animals
Q-4 Explain briefly the following terms:
( i) Scree
(ii) Exfoliation
(iii) Frost Shattering
(iv) Carbonation
(v) Oxidation
(vi) Hydration
Q-5 State the characteristics of a river in its:
(i) Upper Course
(ii) Middle Course
(iii) Lower Course
Q-6 Name are the landforms made by a river in its:
(i) Upper Course
(ii) Middle Course
(iii) Lower Course
Q-7 Distinguish between the following pairs:
(i) Alluvial fan and Delta
(ii) Estuary and Delta
(iii) Tributary and Distributary
Q-8 State the conditions under which what conditions does:
(i) The volume of a river decrease?
(ii) The speed of a river decrease?
Q-9 Explain why:
(1). All rivers do not form deltas.
(2). Rivers in their middle course are very useful.
(3). Estuaries provide good sites for harbours.
(4). Deltas are suited for cultivation.
Q-10 Identify the following features formed by wind erosion/transportation/deposition.
(i) A mound of sand.
(ii) A large lump of rock supported by a narrow neck.
(iii) Ridge and furrow/landscape formed when bands of hard and soft rocks lie parallel to the prevailing winds.
(iv) Sandy depressions caused by the removal of sediments by wind.
(v) A wind borne soil.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 Reaction of minerals in rocks to oxygen in the atmosphere is called

(i)

Carbonation

(ii)

Hydration

(iii)

Solution

(iv)

Oxidation
Q-2 The process of break down of rock but not their removal is known as

(i)

Erosion

(ii)

Gradation

(iii)

Weathering

(iv)

Denudation
Q-3 Rock breakdown without any change in its chemical composition is called

(i)

Mechanical Weathering

(ii)

Biological Weathering

(iii)

Chemical Weathering

(iv)

Geological Weathering
Q-4 Biological weathering is also known as:

(i)

Mechanical Weathering

(ii)

Chemical Weathering

(iii)

Organic weathering

(iv)

Physical Weathering
Q-5 Absorption and expansion of mineral on coming in contact with rain water is called

(i)

Oxidation

(ii)

Solution

(iii)

Hydration

(iv)

Carbonation
Q-6 Which of the following is more rapid in desert climates?

(i)

Mechanical Weathering

(ii)

Chemical Weathering

(iii)

Organic Weathering

(iv)

Simple Weathering
Q-7 The internal forces operating in the interior of the Earth are called

(i)

Exogenic Forces

(ii)

Endogenic Forces

(iii)

Destructive Forces

(iv)

Weathering Forces
Q-8 When water, ice, and wind break down and move particles of rock and soil from one place to another, it is called

(i)

Sedimentation

(ii)

Transportation

(iii)

Weathering

(iv)

Erosion
Q-9 Which one of the following is not an agent of erosion?

(i)

River

(ii)

Wind

(iii)

Glacier

(iv)

Volcanoes
Q-10 During which stage is the action of a river as an agent of erosion most evident?

(i)

Upper Course

(ii)

Middle Course

(iii)

Lower Course

(iv)

Delta Course
Q-11 Which of the following features is not a feature found in the upper course of a river?

(i)

Gorges

(ii)

Waterfalls

(iii)

V-shaped Valleys

(iv)

U-shaped Valleys
Q-12 Which of the following features is not a feature found in the middle course of a river?

(i)

Alluvial Fan

(ii)

Meanders

(iii)

Oxbow Lake

(iv)

Delta
Q-13 Streams or small rivers that join the main river are called

(i)

Tributaries

(ii)

Distributaries

(iii)

Meanders

(iv)

Oxbows
Q-14 When a river breaks into channels or smaller rivers, the smaller rivers are called

(i)

Tributaries

(ii)

Distributaries

(iii)

Meanders

(iv)

Oxbows
Q-15 In which stage of rivers are ox-bows found?

(i)

Upper stage

(ii)

Middle stage

(iii)

Lower stage

(iv)

Delta stage
Chapter-8   The Hydrosphere
Q-1 Answer the following questions
(1). Name the different kinds of movement observed in the ocean.
(2). State the consequences if the ocean remained still.
(3). Which of the movement named in (a) is caused by: (i) By wind? (ii) Due to gravitational force? (iii) Due to temperature variations?
(4). What are tides?
(5). Explain with the help of a neatly labelled sketch how tides are formed.
(6). What is meant by range of the tide?
(7). Under what conditions are tides of the greatest range produced?
(8). What are ocean currents?
(9). Explain how variations in temperature and salinity give rise to ocean currents.
(10). Mention any five benefits of tides.
(11). State the effect of the Gulf Stream on the climate of Western Europe.
(12). Explain why the current pattern of Indian Ocean is different from Atlantic Ocean.
(11). With the help of a neat sketch map describe the course of the Gulf Stream.
Q-2 Account for the following observations:
(1). Neap tides occur twice during a lunar month.
(2). The highest high tide occurs when the New Moon is in perigee.
(3). High tides occur at intervals of approximately 1 2 hours 25 minutes.
(4). At the time of a high tide at a point, a counter bulge is formed on the opposite of that point on the other side of the Earth.
(5). The arrival time of the tide changes everyday.
Q-3 Explain the following terms:
(i) Full Moon
(ii) New Moon
(iii) Perigee
(iv) Apogee
(v) Perihelion
(vi) Aphelion
Q-4 Explain the formation of the following:
(i) Spring Tide
(ii) Neap Tide
(iii) Tidal Bore
Q-5 Explain by reference to actual examples the effects of ocean currents on:
(i) Climate
(ii) Navigation
(iii) Economic activities
Q-6 Explain why:
(i) In many places, ships depend on tides to enter and leave the harbour.
(ii) Moon's gravitational pull has little effect on land but a great effect on the ocean.
(iii) Ocean currents that originate near the Equator are warm currents.
(iv) Warm currents are found along the east coast in the low and middle latitudes.
(v) Cold currents are usually found along the west coast.
(vi) In the northern part of the Indian Ocean, the direction of ocean currents changes according to the seasons.
(vii) The ocean currents of the Indian Ocean are different from those of the Pacific and Atlantic Ocean.
(viii) The harbour of London is ice-free in winter, while the harbour of New York remains ice-bound, although London is situated on a higher latitude.
(ix) The Grand Banks is one of the world's best fishing grounds.
(x) The salinity of the sea varies from place to place.
(xi) River water does not taste salty.
Q-7 Give one important feature of the following:
(i) North Atlantic Drift
(ii) The Kuroshio Current
(iii) The Labrador Current
(iv) The Gulf Stream
(v) The Oyashio Current
Q-8 State whether the following statements are True or False. Correct the incorrect statement.
(i) Mid-Ocean Ridges are underwater mountains.
(ii) Tidal range reduces during perihelion.
(iii) Cold currents originate at the Equator.
(iv) The Labrador Current is a warm current.
(v) Spring tides and Neap tides occur weekly.
(vi) Gulf Stream is also known as North Atlantic Drift.
(vii) The Brazil Current is a cold current.
(viii) A high spring tide occurs when Moon is in apogee.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 Where is the Mariana Trench, the world's deepest trench, located?

(i)

Indian Ocean

(ii)

Atlantic Ocean

(iii)

Pacific Ocean

(iv)

Arctic Ocean
Q-2 What is the rhythmic rise and fall of ocean water twice a day called?

(i)

Waves

(ii)

Tides

(iii)

Currents

(iv)

Tsunami
Q-3 What has the greatest effect on tides?

(i)

Earth

(ii)

Moon

(iii)

Sun

(iv)

Milky Way
Q-4 Which of the following is not a factor for causing tides?

(i)

The atmospheric effect of the Earth

(ii)

The gravitational pull of the Moon

(iii)

Centrifugal force due to Earth's rotation

(iv)

Gravitational pull of the Sun
Q-5 The fall of water higher than normal is called:

(i)

Spring Tide

(ii)

Neap Tide

(iii)

Tide Bores

(iv)

Ebb Tide
Q-6 During which two lunar phases do Spring Tides occur?

(i)

New Moon and First Quarter

(ii)

First Quarter and Full Moon

(iii)

New Moon and Full Moon

(iv)

Full Moon and Third Quarter

(v)

(d) First Quarter and Full Moon
Q-7 What is the time difference between high tides and low tides during a day?

(i)

24 hours

(ii)

6 hours

(iii)

12 hours

(iv)

8 hours
Q-8 How many days internal is there between spring tides and neap tides?

(i)

Two

(ii)

Four

(iii)

Seven

(iv)

Nine
Q-9 When the Moon is closest to the Earth, it is called:

(i)

Apogee

(ii)

Perigee

(iii)

Aphelion

(iv)

Perihelion
Q-10 The ocean surface currents flow in the clockwise direction in the northern parts of the Atlantic and Pacific oceans due to the:

(i)

Coriolis Force

(ii)

Salinity of the water

(iii)

Water temperature

(iv)

Location of oceans
Q-11 In which ocean does the direction of currents reverse with a change in seasons?

(i)

Indian Ocean

(ii)

Atlantic Ocean

(iii)

Pacific Ocean

(iv)

Arctic Ocean
Q-12 All the following statements, regarding the salinity of oceans and sea, are true except:

(i)

Salinity decreases where there is more evaporation

(ii)

Salinity increases where a sea is surrounded by land in low lying areas

(iii)

Salinity decreases where ice melts in large quantities

(iv)

Salinity decreases where there is more rainfall
Q-13 All the following statements about the impact of ocean currents are true except:

(i)

The mixing of cold and warm currents provide suitable conditions for rich fishing grounds

(ii)

The cycle of ocean currents help maintain global temperatures by transferring heat from the lower latitudes to higher latitudes

(iii)

Ocean currents have a moderating influence on the climate coastal regions

(iv)

Ocean currents cause tides
Q-14 Which of the following is not matched correctly?

(i)

Labrador Current - Arctic Ocean

(ii)

Kuroshio Current - Pacific Ocean

(iii)

Gulf Stream - Atlantic

(iv)

Canary Current - Indian Ocean
Q-15 Which of the following factors is responsible for the change in regular directions of ocean currents in the northern portion of the Indian Ocean?

(i)

Trade Winds

(ii)

Monsoon Winds

(iii)

Westerlies

(iv)

Cyclones
Chapter-9   Earth's Atmosphere and lnsolation
Q-1 Answer the following questions
(a). What is the atmosphere?
(b). Name the components of air and state which of the named components have a significant influence on the weather phenomena.
(c). List five useful features of the atmosphere.
(d). Name the primary source of heat and light for the Earth. How is this heat and light created?
(e). Explain how the Earth's atmosphere maintains a balance between the amount of heat that reaches and leaves its surface.
(f). Give three reasons to explain the unequal distribution of insolation on the surface of the Earth.
(g). Mention the two factors that help maintain the global heat balance.
(h). Explain why the temperature of the atmosphere is low in the mornings and evenings, and high in the afternoon.
Q-2 Explain the importance of the following in affecting the weather phenomena.
(i) Carbon dioxide
(ii) Water vapour
(iii) Dust particles
Q-3 Name the five distinct layers of atmosphere and name the layer which answers the following description:
(i) This layer has the coldest temperatures in the atmosphere.
(ii) This layer protects the Earth from meteors and obsolete satellites.
(iii) The temperature in this layer ranges from about 300° C to 1650° C.
(iv) This layer consists of electrically charged particles called ions.
(v) This layer is free from clouds and associated weather changes.
Q-4 Distinguish between the following pairs:
(i) Troposphere and Stratosphere
(ii) Stratosphere and Ionosphere
Q-5 Explain why:
(i) In the troposphere, the temperature decreases with height.
(ii) The stratosphere provides ideal flying conditions for large jet planes.
(iii) A jet plane flying high in the sky leaves behind a white trail.
(iv) The stratosphere is crucial to life on Earth.
(v) The thermosphere is suited for long distance communication.
(vi) We do not feel the tremendous pressure of the atmosphere.
(vii) Temperature increases with height in the stratosphere.
(viii) The atmosphere acts as a huge filter.
(ix) Places near the Equator (in the Torrid Zone) receive maximum insolation.
(x) Places near the poles (in the Frigid Zone) receive the least insolation.
(x) Places near the poles (in the Frigid Zone} receive the least insolation.
(ix) Places near the Equator (in the Torrid Zone} receive maximum insolation.
Q-6 Explain briefly the following terms:
(i) lnsolation
(ii) Terrestrial radiation
Q-7 Explain why:
(i) Land gets heated more quickly than water.
(ii) Land cools more rapidly than water.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 What is the source of all the energy that the Earth receives?

(i)

The stars

(ii)

The Sun

(iii)

The Moon

(iv)

The Milky Way
Q-2 What happens to the heat absorption capacity in the lower layers of the atmosphere as compared to that of the upper layers?

(i)

It increases

(ii)

It decreases

(iii)

No change

(iv)

Changes sometimes
Q-3 What causes variations in the amount of insolation received?

(i)

Ocean currents

(ii)

Latitude

(iii)

Earth's rotation

(iv)

Altitude
Q-4 Which factor determines the angle of incidence of the solar rays?

(i)

Altitude

(ii)

Latitude

(iii)

Ocean currents

(iv)

Rotation of the Earth
Q-5 The Earth radiates heat energy to the atmosphere in the form of:

(i)

Short wavelengths

(ii)

Long wavelengths

(iii)

Infra-red rays

(iv)

lnsolation
Q-6 Where is the maximum insolation is received on Earth?

(i)

Equator

(ii)

Tropical region

(iii)

Temperate region

(iv)

Polar region
Q-7 What is insolation?

(i)

Heat energy radiated by the Earth

(ii)

Incoming solar energy

(iii)

Forms of condensation

(iv)

Warm winds
Q-8 All the following are layers of the Earth's atmosphere except:

(i)

Troposphere

(ii)

Lithosphere

(iii)

Stratosphere

(iv)

Mesosphere
Q-9 If an object is present 5 km above the Earth, it in the:

(i)

Troposphere

(ii)

Stratosphere

(iii)

Mesosphere

(iv)

Thermosphere
Q-10 All the following statements explain the reason for decrease in temperature with an increase in height in the troposphere except:

(i)

The atmosphere can be heated by terrestrial radiation

(ii)

The air is denser near the surface of the Earth

(iii)

There are more impurities near the Earth's surface

(iv)

There is more moisture in the upper layers
Q-11 All weather phenomena take place in which layer of the atmosphere?

(i)

Troposphere

(ii)

Stratosphere

(iii)

Ionosphere

(iv)

Mesosphere
Q-12 Which layer of the atmosphere provided ideal condition for flying jet planes?

(i)

Troposphere

(ii)

Stratosphere

(iii)

Mesosphere

(iv)

Thermosphere
Q-13 For what is the ionosphere responsible?

(i)

Absorbing radio waves

(ii)

Deflecting solar winds

(iii)

Creating solar winds

(iv)

Absorbing most of Sun's ultraviolet radiation entering the Earth's atmosphere
Q-14 What is the "ozone hole"?

(i)

Increase in the concentration of ozone gas

(ii)

A gap in the ozone layer

(iii)

A thinning of the ozone layer

(iv)

A gap filled with water vapour
Q-15 Which layer of the atmosphere has the highest temperatures?

(i)

Troposphere

(ii)

Stratosphere

(iii)

Mesosphere

(iv)

Thermosphere
Chapter-10   Atmospheric Pressure and Wind Systems
Q-1 Answer the following questions
(1). Define atmospheric pressure and state its units.
(2). Name the instrument used for measuring atmospheric pressure.
(3). Define isobars and state its three characteristics.
(4). Make a neatly labelled diagram showing the major pressure belts of the Earth. Also account for the low pressure and high pressure belts.
(5). What is meant by the shifting of the pressure belts.
(6). Mention the effect of the shifting of the pressure belts.
(7). Show with the help of neatly labelled diagrams the pressure belts as they would be on the following days: (i) June 21 (ii) March 21 and September 23 (iii) December 22
(8). What are winds and how are they caused?
(9). How is a wind named?
(10). Explain why air flows do not move in a straight path.
(11). What is this curving motion of winds called?
(12). Name the law that determines the direction of this curving motion of winds.
(13). State the law named in (12).
(14). Name the two quantities that are used to describe a wind.
(15). What are permanent winds?
(16). State their name and direction in: (i) Tropical latitudes (ii) Temperate latitudes (iii) Polar latitudes
(17). Why are the Westerlies known as the 'Roaring Forties' and the 'Furious Fifties' in the Southern Hemisphere.
(18). What are periodic winds? Give two examples of periodic winds.
(19). Differentiate between land breeze and sea breeze.
(20). Why are Monsoon Winds considered to be periodic winds?
(21). State one similarity and one difference between Monsoon winds and land and sea breezes.
(22). What are Variable Winds?
Q-2 Explain the following terms:
(i) High Pressure
(ii) Low Pressure
(iii) Pressure at sea-level
Q-3 Explain how the following factors affect atmospheric pressure:
(i) Altitude
(ii) Temperature
(iii) Water vapour
Q-4 Explain how atmospheric pressure:
(i) Causes winds
(ii) Influences weather
Q-5 State one effect of each:
(i) Land and sea breezes
(ii) Monsoon Winds
Q-6 Differentiate between the following:
(i) Cyclones and Anti-cyclones
(ii) Tornadoes and Water-spouts
Q-7 Explain why:
(i) Atmospheric pressure decreases with increase in altitude.
(ii) Atmospheric pressure increases with decrease in temperature.
(iii) Moist air exerts less pressure than dry air.
(iv) Low pressure is associated with cloudy skies and wet weather.
(v) High pressure is associated with clear and sunny skies.
(vi) The pressure belts are not continuous.
(vii) The Equatorial low pressure belt is also known as the "doldrums".
(viii) The latitudes 30° - 35° North and South of the Equator constitute high pressure belts.
(ix) The Trade winds bring rain to the eastern margins of continents.
(x) The Westerlies bring rain to the western margins of continents.
Q-8 State whether the following statements are True or False. Correct the incorrect statement.
(i) The Coriolis effect is absent at the Equator.
(ii) The Polar winds are deflected the most.
(iii) The region of the trade winds are characterized by frequent cyclones and anticyclones.
(iv) The Westerlies are regular in strength and direction.
(v) The Westerlies blow from the NE direction in the Northern Hemisphere and from the SE direction in the Southern Hemisphere.
Q-9 Fill in the Blanks.
(i) In the temperate latitudes, cyclones are called _______ while tropical cyclones are called ________________ .
(ii) Sirocco and Mistral are examples of ______________ winds while Chinook and Fohn are examples of _______________ winds.

(iii) Winds always blow from an area of_______ pressure to an area of _______ pressure.

(iv) The sub-tropical High Pressure Belt is also known as _______ latitudes.

Q-10 Name the regions where cyclones are known by the following names:
(i) Depression
(ii) Hurricane
(iii) Typhoon
(iv) Tornado
(v) Cyclone
Q-11 Match the column:
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 Isobars are imaginary lines drawn on a map joining places having the same

(i)

Temperature

(ii)

Pressure

(iii)

Rainfall

(iv)

Height
Q-2 Which pressure belt lies around the Equatorial region?

(i)

Equatorial Low-Pressure Belt

(ii)

Equatorial High-Pressure Belt

(iii)

Tropical Low-Pressure Belt

(iv)

Tropical High-Pressure Belt
Q-3 The Equatorial Low-Pressure Belt is also known as

(i)

Doldrums

(ii)

Horse Latitudes

(iii)

Roaring Twenties

(iv)

Brave Latitudes
Q-4 Seasonal shifting of the Pressure Belts north or south is because of

(i)

The north and south movement of the Sun

(ii)

Permanent winds blow the belts north or south

(iii)

The rotation of the Earth

(iv)

The tilt of the Earth's axis
Q-5 Wind speed is determined by

(i)

Pressure Gradient

(ii)

Amount of moisture winds carry

(iii)

The direction from which winds blow

(iv)

Nearness to the sea
Q-6 All the following are called Planetary Winds except

(i)

Polar Winds

(ii)

Westerlies

(iii)

Trade Winds

(iv)

Monsoons
Q-7 Winds that blow from the Sub-tropical High-Pressure Belt to the Equatorial High-Pressure Belt

(i)

Jet Stream

(ii)

Westerlies

(iii)

Monsoons

(iv)

Trade Winds
Q-8 What kind of pressure do cyclones have at their centres?

(i)

Low

(ii)

High

(iii)

Equal

(iv)

Steep
Q-9 Anticyclones are so called because they

(i)

Are systems of outflow of air

(ii)

Have no pressure gradient

(iii)

Destroy cyclone conditions

(iv)

Rotate in opposite direction of cyclones
Q-10 Where are cyclonic winds known as typhoons?

(i)

South China Sea

(ii)

Indian Ocean

(iii)

North Sea

(iv)

Mediterranean Sea
Q-11 All the following are cyclonic storms except

(i)

Loo

(ii)

Hurricanes

(iii)

Tornadoes

(iv)

Depressions
Q-12 Anti-cyclones are associated with

(i)

Cloudy Weather

(ii)

Clear Skies

(iii)

Strong winds

(iv)

Heavy rain
Q-13 Which climatic conditions exist where the trade winds converge?

(i)

Cool and wet

(ii)

Warm and wet

(iii)

Cool and dry

(iv)

Warm and dry
Q-14 All statements are true about Jet Streams except

(i)

Fast flowing currents of air

(ii)

Located in the troposphere

(iii)

Blows from the westerly direction

(iv)

Too high to affect us
Q-15 Which factor causes global wind patterns?

(i)

Changes in the distance between Earth and the Moon

(ii)

Unequal heating of Earth's surface by the Sun

(iii)

Daily changes in the tilt of Earth's axis

(iv)

Rapid rotation of the Sun on its axis
Chapter-11   Humidity and Rainfall
Q-1 State whether the environment will be cooled or warmed in the following cases:
(i) Rain in winter
(ii) Snow sublimes
(iii) Water freezes
(iv) Ice melts
(v) Water evaporates
Q-2 Answer the following questions
(1). Define evaporation.
(2). Define Humidity.
(3). Differentiate between absolute humidity and relative humidity.
(4). The amount of water vapour required to saturate air at 26°C is 22 g/cu.m. (i) Calculate the relative humidity of air at 26°C if the absolute humidity is 11 g/cu.m. (ii) Calculate the relative humidity of air at 26°C if the absolute humidity is 5.5 g/cu.m.
(5). What is condensation?
(6). Under what condition does condensation occur?
(7). State two ways in which air can become saturated.
(8). Define a cloud.
(9). Define precipitation.
(10). What is a "condensation nucleus"?
(11). Briefly describe the two main stages in the formation of rain.
(12). Rain forms when moist air rises to cooler regions. State the three most common causes of rising air.
Q-3 Select the correct alternative:
(i) When the temperature increases, the rate of evaporation (increases/decreases).
(ii) (Warm/Cool) air can hold more water vapour than (cool/warm/air).
(iii) The temperature at which air gets saturated is called (saturation/dew) point.
(iv) When the temperature of air increases, the capacity of the air to hold water vapour (increases/ decreases).
(v) When the temperature is (high/low), more water is needed to saturate the air.
Q-4 State one advantage and one disadvantage of each:
(i) High relative humidity
(ii) Low relative humidity
Q-5 Identify the different forms of condensation from the description given below:
(i) Water vapour condenses on cool surfaces and forms water droplets.
(ii) Coating of ice formed when moisture in the air freezes.
(iii) Water droplets suspended in the atmosphere, away from the surface of the Earth.
(iv) Water droplets suspended in the atmosphere close to the surface of the Earth.
(v) A dense mist.
Q-6 Name the type of cloud that:
(i) Forms heaps about 2 km and 6 km above the Earth.
(ii) Forms layers more than 6 km above the Earth.
(iii) Towering, rain bearing clouds, sometimes spreading out on top to form an 'anvil'.
(iv) High clouds appearing as hooked filaments called 'mares' tail.
(v) Thin sheet of white ice-crystal clouds that sometimes produce halos around the Sun or Moon.
Q-7 Distinguish between the following pairs:
(i) Fog and Mist
(ii) Dew and Frost
(iii) Snow and Ice
(iv) Cirrus and Cumulus clouds
(v) Saturation and Dew point
Q-8 Give one term for the following forms of precipitation:
(i) Precipitation that reaches the ground in liquid form.
(ii) A powdery mass of ice crystals.
(iii) A mixture of ice and rain.
(iv) Pellets of ice associated with thunderstorms.
(v) Lightest form of precipitation consisting of fine water drops falling close together.
Q-9 State whether the following statements are True or False. Correct the incorrect statement.
(i) All clouds do not produce rain.
(ii) More rain occurs in the tropical latitudes.
(iii) Winds that blow over warm ocean currents give more rain than those that blow over cold ocean currents.
(iv) Rain drops are 0.5 cm to 6.35 cm in diameter.
(v) In the process of precipitation, no change of state of water is involved.
Q-10 Explain why the following regions receive heavy rainfall:
(i) Coastal regions
(ii) Windward side of mountains
(iii) Regions under the influence of on-shore winds.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The actual amount of water vapour in the air is known as:

(i)

Absolute Humidity

(ii)

Relatively Humidity

(iii)

Dew Point

(iv)

Condensation Amount
Q-2 The percentage of moisture present in the atmosphere as compared to it full capacity is known as:

(i)

Specific Humidity

(ii)

Absolute Humidity

(iii)

Relative Humidity

(iv)

Humidity
Q-3 Air contains a certain amount of water vapour before it become saturated. The amount is dependent on:

(i)

Wind speed

(ii)

Temperature of Air

(iii)

Height above sea level

(iv)

Amount of dust particles in the air
Q-4 When it rains, the relative humidity in the atmosphere is:

(i)

0%

(ii)

50%

(iii)

75%

(iv)

100%
Q-5 What is the energy required to change water's state, without changing its temperature called?

(i)

Latent heat

(ii)

Latent water

(iii)

Latent ice

(iv)

Latent vapour
Q-6 Water vapour beyond the dew point results in

(i)

Precipitation

(ii)

Condensation

(iii)

Formation of Ice

(iv)

Hail
Q-7 Which of the following is not a form of condensation?

(i)

Dew

(ii)

Fog

(iii)

Clouds

(iv)

Hail
Q-8 Less dew is formed on cloudy nights because:

(i)

Clouds absorb the falling dew

(ii)

Clouds scatter moisture

(iii)

On cloudy nights radiation takes place slowly

(iv)

On cloudy nights radiation takes place quickly
Q-9 Which cloud is known as the high cloud?

(i)

Cirrus

(ii)

Status

(iii)

Nimbus

(iv)

Cumulus
Q-10 When rain falls through a cold layer of air near the Earth's surface, rain drops gets frozen into ice. This form of precipitation is called:

(i)

Snowfall

(ii)

Hail

(iii)

Sleet

(iv)

Frost
Q-11 Which of the following is not a form of precipitation?

(i)

Rainfall

(ii)

Waterfall

(iii)

Snow

(iv)

Hail
Q-12 The type of rain is caused by ascent of moisture laden air along a mountain is:

(i)

Convectional Rainfall

(ii)

Orographic rainfall

(iii)

Cyclonic Rainfall

(iv)

Sleet
Q-13 Frontal rain is caused by:

(i)

Convection currents

(ii)

Winds from the sea

(iii)

Cyclonic activity

(iv)

Condensation of water evaporated from mountains
Q-14 Which of the following types of rainfall is often accompanied with thunder and lightning?

(i)

Orographic

(ii)

Convectional

(iii)

Frontal

(iv)

All of these
Q-15 Rain shadow zone means:

(i)

Windward slope of mountains

(ii)

Leeward slope of mountains

(iii)

Mountainous areas

(iv)

Coastal area
Chapter-12   Pollution
Q-1 Answer the following questions
(1). What is a pollutant?
(2). Name the two types of pollutants recognised and distinguish between them, giving examples.
(3). Define pollution.
(4). Environmental pollution is the by-product of modern civilisation. Comment.
(5). Define air pollution.
(6). Name two gaseous pollutants and two particulate pollutants.
(7). What are the health hazards associated with air pollution?
(8). Define water pollution and list the main sources of that cause water pollution.
(9). Name three water-borne diseases.
(10). Define land and soil pollution.
(11). Write a short note on 'Soil erosion'.
(12). What precautions must be taken with regard to disposal of nuclear wastes?
(13). What is organic farming?
(14). List the advantages of organic farming.
(15). What are the main drawbacks of organic farming?
Q-2 Explain the following terms:
(i) Greenhouse effect
(ii) Ozone depletion
(iii) Acid rain
(iv) Eutrophication
(v) Smog
(vi) Thermal inversion
Q-3 Discuss the dangers associated with:
(i) Global warming
(ii) Ozone depletion
(iii) Acid rain
Q-4 What is the effect of polluted water on:
(i) Soil
(ii) Aquatic life?
Q-5 Discuss the harmful effect of:
(i) Radioactive pollution
(ii) Noise pollution
Q-6 List two measures each for controlling:
(i) Water pollution
(ii) Air pollution
(iii) Soil pollution
(iv) Noise pollution
Q-7 Match the polluting items with their source. (Some items may have more than one source).
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 Any change in the natural quality of the environment brought about by chemical, physical or biological factors is known as:

(i)

Humidity

(ii)

Pollution

(iii)

Radiation

(iv)

Pollutants
Q-2 Agents that bring about undesirable changes in the environment are called:

(i)

Humidity

(ii)

Pollution

(iii)

Radiation

(iv)

Pollutants
Q-3 Which of the following is an effect of waste accumulation?

(i)

Urbanisaton

(ii)

Industrialisation

(iii)

Over population

(iv)

Health problems
Q-4 Which of the following is an example of soil pollution?

(i)

Disposal of solid waste in the open

(ii)

Dumping of sewage in the open

(iii)

Overuse of fertilizers

(iv)

All of the above
Q-5 Which one of the following is the cause of acid rain?

(i)

Land pollution

(ii)

Water pollution

(iii)

Air pollution

(iv)

Noise pollution
Q-6 Acid rain is usually formed in:

(i)

Polar regions

(ii)

Forest regions

(iii)

Desert regions

(iv)

Industrial regions
Q-7 Smog occurs in places with:

(i)

Excessive Sulphur dioxide

(ii)

Low temperatures

(iii)

High temperatures

(iv)

Excessive Water Vapour
Q-8 Non-biodegradable pollutants are created by:

(i)

Natural disasters

(ii)

Excessive use of resources

(iii)

Nature

(iv)

Humans
Q-9 Which of the following gas does not contribute to the green house effect?

(i)

Nitrogen

(ii)

Carbon dioxide

(iii)

Methane

(iv)

Chlorofluorocarbons
Q-10 Which of the following is non-biodegradable?

(i)

Wool

(ii)

Plastic

(iii)

Bones

(iv)

Coffee beans
Q-11 What is the chief source of air pollution in urban areas?

(i)

Factories

(ii)

Office equipment

(iii)

Automobiles

(iv)

Garbage
Q-12 In thermal inversion:

(i)

Warm ground air gets overlapped by cool air

(ii)

Cool ground air gets overlapped by warm air

(iii)

Ground temperature becomes high in winter

(iv)

Ground temperature becomes low in summer
Q-13 Pollution is controlled by:

(i)

Banning nuclear blasts

(ii)

Use of electrically operated automobiles

(iii)

Sewage treatment

(iv)

All of the above
Q-14 Waste management has been one of the most current being tackled at present. Which of the following is a good example of it?

(i)

Keep parks and roads clean

(ii)

Use less water to clean vessels

(iii)

Recycle non-biodegradable waste

(iv)

Reduce use of electronic gadgets
Q-15 Which of the following material can be recycled multiple times?

(i)

Aluminium

(ii)

Wood

(iii)

Organic Materials

(iv)

All of these
Chapter-13   Natural Regions of the World
Q-1 Answer the following questions based on the climate of the Equatorial region.
(a). Why is this region hot and damp throughout the year?
(b). State the: (i) Annual range of temperature (ii) Diurnal range of temperature (iii) What can you infer from the above data?
(c). (i) Rain is of the convectional type. Explain the underlined term and state its consequence. (ii) State the mean annual rainfall in mm.
(d). The sky is always cloudy. State its consequence.
Q-2 Explain why:
(a). The Amazon Basin is very thinly populated.
(b). People of the Malay villages near the sea build houses on stilts.
Q-3 Classify the following natural regions into tropical, subtropical, temperate and polar:
(i) Equatorial type
(ii) Tundra
(iii) Mediterranean type
(iv) Savanna
(v) Monsoon region
(vi) Hot Deserts
(vii) Taiga
(viii) Steppes
Q-4 Answer the following questions
(a). Name the four layers of the rain forest and mention the characteristic of each.
(b). Account for the luxuriant forest growth in this region.
(c). Name three important trees found in these forests.
(d). Why are Equatorial Forests difficult to utilise?
(e). What is a natural region?
(f). What is the purpose of dividing the Earth into natural regions? Give two reasons.
(g). Why are natural regions considered generalisations?
Q-5 Answer the following questions based on the human life and economic development of the Congo Basin.
(a). Account for the economic prosperity of the Congo Basin.
(b). Name/State: (i) The major food crop of the Congo Basin. (ii) The native people of the Congo Basin. (iii) The characteristic dwellings of the natives. (iv) The occupation of the natives. (v) The characteristic clothing and diet of the natives.
Q-6 Answer the following questions
(1). Name three countries of Africa which lie in this region.
(2). In what ways have humans impacted the grassland?
(3). What are the tropical grasslands of South America known as?
(4). Name the common tree found in the Savannas.
Q-7 Which of the following statements is true about the climate of the tropical grasslands?
(i) There are generally four types of tropical Savanna climates.
(ii) The Savanna climate has a temperature range of 20°C - 30°C.
(iii) The Savannas get all their rain between December to February.
(iv) The Savanna has a distinct dry season, which is in summer.
(v) Regions along the edge of the forest get up to 120 cm of rain.
Q-8 Explain why:
(i) The tropical grasslands do not support tall trees.
(ii) There are more trees along the east coast in the Savanna region.
(iii) Trees in the Savanna are short and often flat at the top.
(iv) Farming is the main occupation of the people living in the Savanna.
(v) In the Savannas most animals migrate during winter.
Q-9 Name a desert located in each of the following continents:
(i) Africa
(ii) Asia
(iii) Australia
(iv) South America
(v) North America
Q-10 Answer the following questions
(1). Why do desert regions receive very little rainfall?
(2). What is a desert?
(3). Name the three types of deserts.
(4). State the latitudes within which the deserts lie.
(5). What is the requisite for a region to be classifed as a desert?
(6). Deserts dominate the western margins of continents. Explain why.
(7). Name: (i) The largest desert (ii) The Great Indian Desert (iii) The driest desert
(8). Lack of water, drying winds and high temperatures make conditions difficult for plants. However, the plants of the desert are well-adapted to their environment. Describe briefly how desert plants are adapted to survive in this environment.
(9). What is an oasis?
(10). What is the source of water in an oasis?
(11). How is irrigation water made available to the fields?
(12). Where in the desert do people live a settled life?
(13). What is the diet of the people in such areas?
(14). What is the occupation of the people in such areas?
Q-11 By what name are the natives of the following deserts known?
(i) The Sahara Desert
(ii) The Arabian Desert
(iii) The Australian Desert
Q-12 Explain why:
(i) The diurnal range of temperature is greater than annual range of temperature in the tropical deserts.
(ii) The annual rainfall is less than 25 cm in the tropical deserts.
(iii) People in the desert wear loose, flowing garments.
(iv) The Bushmen of the Kalahari do not grow crops or rear animals.
Q-13 Answer the following questions
(1). Name five countries that experience true monsoon climate.
(2). State the features of the monsoonal type of climate as experienced in the Indian subcontinent.
(3). There are three main seasons in a year in Indian subcontinent and surrounding monsoonal areas.
(4). Describe briefly the characteristic of the seasons during the following months: (i) March to June (ii) July to October (iii) November to February
Q-14 Explain why:
(i) The forests of the Monsoon region are economically important.
(ii) Agriculture is the most important occupation of the people in the lndo-Gangetic plain.
Q-15 Answer the following questions based on the climate of the Mediterranean region:
(a). State the: (i) Mean annual temperature (ii) Mean summer temperature (iii) Mean winter temperature (iv) Annual rainfall in cm
(b). Name the winds that influence this region in: (i) Summer (ii) Winter
(c). State the effect of the winds named in (b) on the general climate of this region.
(d). Name two local: (i) Hot winds that blow in this region (ii) Cold winds that blow in this region.
Q-16 Answer the following questions
(1). The vegetation of the Mediterranean region consists mainly of dwarf trees and shrubs. State the advantages of shrubs over trees.
(2). Explain why the Mediterranean region is often called the 'orchard of the world'.
Q-17 Which of the following statements are true about the climate of the Temperate grasslands:
(i) Winters are cold with temperatures below freezing point.
(ii) The annual range of temperature is high.
(iii) The Prairies experience the continental type of climate with extreme temperatures while the Pampas experiences the moderating influence of the ocean.
(iv) Annual rainfall is heavy, about 150 cm.
(v) Rainfall is mainly convectional, falling mostly in summer.
Q-18 What are the natives of the following regions called ?
(i) Central Asia
(ii) Prairies
Q-19 Explain why:
(a). The natives of the grassland use animal dung instead of wood as fuel.
(b). Meat forms only a small part of the Kirghiz diet.
(c). The bison was the most important animal to the natives of the Prairies.
(d). How did most of the native people of the temperate grasslands make a living in the past?
(e). As the grasslands opened up with migration of people from different parts of the world, what was the next stage in the development of this region?
(f). In what way was the economic activity of the immigrant people different from that of the native people?
Q-20 Answer the following questions
(1). By what different names is the coniferous forest known?
(2). State the location and extent of this region.
(3). Why is this region also known as the "Cold pole of the Earth"?
(4). Name three evergreen trees, softwood trees and hardwood trees of coniferous forest.
(5). Explain why lumbering and fur trading are important occupation of the people of the taiga region.
Q-21 Explain why:
(i) The coniferous forest region is not found in the Southern Hemisphere.
(ii) This region is characterised by a wide range of temperature.
(iii) Annual precipitation is low in this region.
(iv) Coniferous trees are conical in shape.
(v) Winter is the season of lumbering activity.
Q-22 Answer the following questions
(1). State the location and extent of the tundra.
(2). What does the word "Tundra" mean in Russian?
(3). Why is the tundra classified as a desert?
(4). Mention two similarities and two differences between the tundra and the hot deserts.
(5). Why is there no tundra region in the Southern hemisphere?
(6). What is an "aurora" and how are they caused?
(7). Why are the auroras seen only in latitudes beyond 65° in both hemispheres?
(8). Give specific names by which auroras are known in: (i) The Northern Hemisphere (ii) The Southern Hemisphere (iii) Both Hemisphere
(9). What is the type of rainfall in the tundras?
(10). Name the wind that brings rain to this region.
(11). Why is Norway known as the "land of the Midnight Sun"?
(12). What is permafrost and state its effect on the soil and vegetation of the tundra.
(13). Name the people who live in the tundra region of the following: (i) Greenland and North America (ii) Norway (iii) Eastern Russia (iv) North Eastern Siberia (v) North Western Siberia
(14). What is the main occupation of these people?
(15). Give a brief account of the various modes of transport in this region.
Q-23 State the characteristics of:
(i) Summer in the tundra
(ii) Winter in the tundra
Q-24 Explain why:
(i) Tundra plants have a thick creeping root system.
(ii) Tall trees cannot survive in the tundra.
(iii) Mosses and lichen grow in the tundra.
(iv) The reindeer is the most important animal of the tundra.
(v) Large, warm blooded animals survive in the tundra.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The division of the world into natural regions is primarily based on:

(i)

Atmosphere

(ii)

Rainfall

(iii)

Climate types

(iv)

Annual Range of Temperature
Q-2 Type and density of vegetation changes from place to place due to:

(i)

Variation in temperature and moisture

(ii)

Variation in type of animals found

(iii)

Variation in culture

(iv)

Variation in soil
Q-3 The greatest diversity of animal and plant species occurs in:

(i)

Temperate Deciduous Forests

(ii)

Tropical Rainforests

(iii)

The Taiga

(iv)

The Temperate Grasslands
Q-4 All the following are hard wood trees except:

(i)

Rose wood

(ii)

Eucalyptus

(iii)

Mahogany

(iv)

Ebony
Q-5 The Tropical Grasslands are also known as:

(i)

The Selva

(ii)

The Savannah

(iii)

The Prairies

(iv)

The Atacama
Q-6 Tropical Deserts are found on which margins of continents?

(i)

Western

(ii)

Eastern

(iii)

Northern

(iv)

Southern
Q-7 The Mediterranean region is known as the:

(i)

The Orchard of the world

(ii)

The Playground of the world

(iii)

The Roof of the world

(iv)

The Land of the Sun
Q-8 Which type of climate is found along the Amazon Basin and Congo Basin?

(i)

Monsoon type

(ii)

Tundra type

(iii)

Equatorial type

(iv)

China type
Q-9 Which of the following is not a Temperate Grassland?

(i)

Steppes

(ii)

Pampas

(iii)

Prairies

(iv)

Savannah
Q-10 Which natural regions receives rain only in winter?

(i)

Tropical Grassland

(ii)

Temperate Grassland

(iii)

Taiga

(iv)

Mediterranean Region
Q-11 The home of fur-bearing animals like the sable, mink, and the lynx is the

(i)

Coniferous Forest

(ii)

Deciduous Forest

(iii)

Grasslands

(iv)

Rain Forest
Q-12 Citrus fruits such as oranges, figs, olives and grapes are commonly cultivated in:

(i)

Tropical Deciduous Forest

(ii)

Temperate Evergreen Forest

(iii)

Mediterranean Region

(iv)

Tropical Evergreen Forest
Q-13 Spruce, fir and pine trees are found in:

(i)

The Tundra

(ii)

The Taiga

(iii)

The Savannah

(iv)

The Selva
Q-14 The place which is extremely cold and has short summers with limited natural vegetation is the:

(i)

Tundra

(ii)

Taiga

(iii)

Temperate Desert

(iv)

Temperate Grassland
Q-15 Inuits are associated with which geographical region?

(i)

Arid region

(ii)

Polar region

(iii)

Rainforest region

(iv)

Grassland region