Question bank
Chapter-1 Cell Cycle and Cell Division
Q-1 Answer the following questions.
(1) What is cell division?
(2) Name the types of cell division that occur in eukaryotic cells and state the significance of each.
(3) What is interphase? Mention three significant changes that occur in a cell during interphase.
(4) What is cytokinesis? With the help of neat sketches show how cytokinesis differs in a plant cell and in an animal cell.
Q-2 Explain the following terms:
(i) Diploid chromosomes
(ii) Haploid chromosomes
(iii) Homologous chromosomes
(iv) Synapsis
(v) Crossing over
(vi) Cell cycle
Q-3 State whether the following statements are true or false:
(i) Human nerve cells do not divide after birth
(ii) In animal cells, cytokinesis occurs by plate formation .
(iii) Chromosomal ends are known as centromeres.
(iv) Crossing over is a process in which genes are exchanged between sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.
(v) In plant cytokinesis, the cell plate grows centripetally.
(vi) A DNA molecule binds with histones, forming a vast number of nucleosomes.
(vii) Chromosome number is the number of each type of chromosome characteristic of a species.
(viii) Two types of nitrogenous bases in DNA are purines and pyrimidines.
Q-4 Give a biological/technical term for the following:
(i) The structure from which spindles form in an animal cell.
(ii) Division which brings about vegetative growth.
(iii) The shortest phase of mitosis.
(iv) The longest phase of a normal cell cycle.
(v) The shortest phase of a normal cell cycle.
(vi) Specific sequences of nucleotides on a chromosome.
(vii) The chromosomal ends.
(viii) The complex of DNA and histone molecules.
(ix) The point where sister chromatids are attached.
(x) Members of each pair of similar chromosomes.
(xi) Cells with two of each type of chromosome.
(xii) The process in which genes are exchanged between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.
Q-5 Column 'B' is a list of items related to ideas in Column 'A'. Match the term in Column 'B' with the suitable idea given in Column 'A'
Q-6 Determine whether the following characteristics apply to mitosis, meiosis, or both, by putting a tick mark in the appropriate column(s).
(i) No pairing of homologues occur.
(ii) Involves two divisions.
(iii) Four daughter cells produced.
(iv) Associated with growth and asexual reproduction .
(v) Associated with sexual reproduction.
(vi) One division takes place.
(vii) Two daughter cells produced.
(viii) Involves duplication of chromosomes.
(ix) Chromosome number is maintained.
(x) Chromosome number is halved.
(xi) Crossing over between homologous chromosomes may occur.
(xii) Daughter cells are identical to parent cell .
(xiii) Daughter cells are not identical to parent cell.
(xiv) Produces gametes.
(xv) Synapsis occurs in prophase.
Q-7 Shown below are the stages in diploid cell division. One stage is repeated.
(a) Using letters of the alphabet, arrange the stages in the correct sequence.
(b) Name the stage during which the chromosomes first become visible.
(c) How can you tell which diagram(s) is/are the end of the cell division?
(d) Write the name and letter of the longest phase.
(e) Write the name and letter of the shortest phase.
(f) One more stage, which is part of the cell cycle, could have been added in this diagram. Name this stage and state where it should be placed.
(g) How many chromosomes are present in the parent cell and daughter cells?
(h) Is this a plant cell or an animal cell? Justify your answer.
(i) In what type of cells does mitosis take place?
(j) State the importance of mitosis.
Q-8 Given alongside is a diagram of a double helical structure of DNA:
(a) Name the four nitrogenous bases that form a DNA molecule.
(b) Give the full form of DNA.
(c) Name the unit of heredity.
(d) Name the components of a nucleotide.
(e) Name the complementary base pairs.
Q-9 The diagrams X and Y are part of a phenomenon that occurs in a certain type of cell division.
(a) What type of chromosomes are shown in the diagram ?
(b) Name the phenomenon X and state the type of cell division in which it occurs.
(c) Explain what has occurred in Y and its significance.
Q-10 The diagram represents a stage during mitotic cell division in an animal cell:
(a) Identify the stage. Give a reason to support your answer.
(b) Name the cell organelle that forms the 'aster'.
(c) Name the parts labelled 1, 2 and 3.
(d) Name the stage that follows this stage of mitosis. How can this stage be identified?
(e) Mention two points of difference between 'mitosis' and 'meiosis' with regard to: (i) The number of daughter cells formed. (ii) The chromosome number in the daughter cells.
Q-11 The diagram represents the cell cycle. Match the statements given below with the appropriate letters on the diagram.
(a) This is the dividing phase of the cell cycle, called the M-phase.
(b) This refers to the interphase stage of the cell cycle.
(c) Proteins needed for cell growth are synthesized and the cell doubles in size.
(d) Organelles double in number, DNA condenses into chromatin, Energy pools are established.
(e) DNA replication occurs here.
Chapter-2 Heredity: Fundamentals of Genetics
Q-1 Study the following problems based on crosses involving a single trait and complete the given squares and answer the questions.
(i) When both parents are Bb or have heterozygous black fur.
(ii) When one parent is homozygous black and other is homozygous brown.
(iii) When one parent is heterozygous black and other is homozygous brown.
Q-2
In blood typing the gene for type A and the gene for type B are codominant. The gene for type 0 is recessive. Complete the following squares and determine the possible blood types of the offspring when:
(i) Father: type 0, Mother: type O
(ii) Father: type A, homozygous; Mother: type B, homozygous
(iii) Father: type 0, Mother: type AB
(iv) Father and Mother are both type AB
Q-3 Explain the following terms:
(i) Alleles
(ii) Hybrid
(iii) Mutation
Q-4 Distinguish between:
(i) Phenotype and Genotype
(ii) Monohybrid cross and Dihybrid cross
Q-5 Answer the following questions.
(1) State the difference between character and trait.
(2) (i) Name the Austrian monk who formulated the basic laws of inheritance. (ii) Name and state the two laws formulated by the botanist named in (i).
(3) What is a gene? How is it related to heredity?
(4) Explain why it is possible for brown eyed parents to have a blue eyed child. Which law does it illustrate?
(5) Explain why haemophilia, which is transmitted through the mother, may show itself in 50 % of her sons, but in none of her daughters.
(6) Justify the statement: 'The sex of the child depends upon its father'
(7) The mating of two curly-haired brown guinea pigs results in some offspring with brown curly hair, some with brown straight hair, some with white curly hair, and even some with white straight hair. Which of Mendel's Laws is illustrated in this mating?
(8) Explain why it is possible for brown eyed parents to have a blue eyed child. Which law does it illustrate?
Q-6 A homozygous plant having round [R] and yellow [Y] seed is crossed with a homozygous plant which has wrinkled [r] and green [y] seeds:
(i) Give the scientific name of the plant on which Mendel conducted his hybridization experiments.
(ii) Give the genotype of the F, generation.
(iii) Give the dihybrid phenotypic ratio and the phenotype of the offspring of the F 2 generation when two plants of the F, generation are crossed.
(iv) Name and state the law which explains the dihybrid ratio.
(v) Give the possible combinations of gametes that can be obtained from F, hybrid.
Q-7 Give one term for the following:
(i) The condition in which both the alleles are identical.
(ii) The chemical substance that constitutes the gene.
(iii) The allele which expresses itself on the other.
(iv) A cross between the F1 individual and either of the parent is dominant or recessive.
(v) A cross between the F1 individual and the recessive parent.
Q-8 State whether the following statements are true or false. Correct the incorrect statements.
(i) Some genes have multiple alleles
(ii) Radiation from radioactive compounds can cause mutation.
(iii) Genes in pairs, occurring on homologous chromosomes are known as alleles.
(iv) An organism with two copies of the same allele is homozygous for that trait.
(v) Human egg cells have one Y chromosome
(vi) Sickle cell anaemia is caused due to chromosome mutation.
(vii) Down syndrome results from gene mutation.
(viii) The tendency of genes to stay together in hereditary transmission is called mutation.
(ix) A woman receives her X chromosome from her mother only.
(x) Recessive genes get expressed when there are two copies of it in a single individual.
(xi) Sex-linked inheritance is the appearance of a trait which is due to the presence of an allele exclusively on either the X chromosome or the Y chromosome.
Q-9 The diagram shows the sex chromosomes of a human couple A and B, and four of their children, C, D, E and F.
(i) a.Which parent is the mother? b. Explain why you chose this parent.
(ii) Another child is expected. What are the chances of it being a girl?
Q-10 The gene (allele) b for colour blindness is recessive to the gene B for normal vision. The gene b is carried only on the X chromosome.
(a) Describe these phenotypes.
(b) Explain why red-green colour blindness is more likely to occur in men than in women.
Q-11
In bees, wasps and ants, an unfertilised egg (n) develops into a male and a fertilised egg (2n) into a female.
(a) Write the number of chromosomes present in: B __ , D __ , E __ , F __
(b) Letter __ is an unfertilised egg and develops into a male.
(c) __ and __ are the result of meiosis.
(d) Letters __ and __ represent female insects.
(e) Sex is determined by the number of chromosomes, YES or NO?
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 Which of the following depict monohybrid ratio:
(i)
1 : 2 : 1(ii)
1 : 1(iii)
3 : 1(iv)
1 : 3(v)
none of theseQ-2 Which of the following depict dihybrid ratio:
(i)
9 : 5: 1(ii)
9 : 3 : 3 : 1(iii)
9 :7(iv)
9: 4 :3(v)
none of theseQ-3 RR (red) is crossed with rr (white). All the Rr offsprings are pink. This is an indication that R gene is
(i)
Hybrid(ii)
Recessive(iii)
Incompletely dominant(iv)
MutantQ-4 A true breeding tall and smooth-seeded pea plant is crossed with a true breeding dwarf and wrinkled seeded plant. The fact that F1 plants were all tall demonstrates:
(i)
Principle of independent assortment of characters.(ii)
That recombination of characters appears in F 2 generation.(iii)
That P1 tall plants were heterozygous.(iv)
That tallness was dominant to dwarfness.Q-5 How many genes does a child receive from its father?
(i)
25%(ii)
50%(iii)
75%(iv)
100%Q-6 Law of independent assortment can be proved on the basis of which of the following ratios:
(i)
3 : 1(ii)
2 : 1 : 1(iii)
9 : 3: 3: 1(iv)
2 : 1
Q-7 After crossing a tall pea plant with a dwarf pea plant, all the offsprings were tall. If one of these new tall pea plants is crossed with a dwarf plant, the ratio of tall to dwarf in the next generation would be:
(i)
1 tall : 1 dwarf(ii)
3 tall : 1 dwarf(iii)
All tall(iv)
All dwarfChapter-3 Osmosis and Ascent of Sap
Q-1 State whether the following statements are true or false:
(i) Osmosis occurs when two solutions of different concentration are separated by a semipermeable membrane.
(ii) When a cell is placed in a hypertonic solution, endosmosis takes place.
(iii) Wooden doors and windows swell during the rainy season because they absorb water due to diffusion.
(iv) Water absorption from the soil can only take place when the soil solution is hypotonic to cell sap.
(v) Guttation in plants is indicative of root pressure.
(vi) Ascent of sap takes place through the pith.
(vii) If the xylem vessels are blocked by wax, the plant will wilt.
Q-2 Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct option from the brackets.
(i) The loss of water in the form of droplets through leaves of an intact plant is termed _________________ (Bleeding/ guttation/transpiration)
(ii) The root hair is _________________ (a cell/a cilium/an extension of a cell)
(iii) Outer layer of root hair is made up of pectin and inner layer is made up of _________________ (Cellulose/polysaccharide/mucopeptides)
(iv) Due to turgidity, the guard cell becomes ____________________ on the outside. (More concave/more convex/flat)
(v) The root cap acts as a ________________ tissue. (Conductive / protective / mechanical)
Q-3 Fill in the blanks
(i) When conditions are ________________ there is no osmotic movement in either direction.
(ii) Amoebae and other phagocytic cells use _____________ when they trap their prey.
(iii) _____________ refers to the relative concentrations of solutes of two fluids.
(iv) _______________ is the pumping of a solute through a membrane, against its concentration gradient.
(v) The unassisted movement of solutes from a region of higher to lower concentration is called _________________
(vi) _________ , ___________ and other small molecules with no net charge diffuse across the cell membrane.
(vii) _________________ is the movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane in response to solute concentration gradients, fluid pressure, or both.
(viii) Through _________________ , cells eject large volumes of dissolved substances across the plasma membrane.
(ix) ________________ does not require an energy input to operate.
(x) Water tends to move from __________ fluids to ___________ fluids
Q-4 Give the biological term/technical term for the following:
(i) The term given to osmosis in which water from the living cells diffuse out.
(ii) Pressure which causes water to rise up to a few metres in a plant.
(iii) The process in which water absorption needs metabolic energy.
(iv) The upward movement of water and minerals from roots to leaves and other parts of the plant.
(v) The process by which molecules distribute themselves evenly within the space they occupy.
Q-5 Show with the help of neat sketches how a red blood cell would appear if placed in each of the following separately:
(a) water
(b) brine
Q-6 Differentiate between:
(i) Diffusion and Osmosis
(ii) Plasmolysis and Turgidity
(iii) Endosmosis and Exosmosis
(iv) Active Transport and Passive Transport
Q-7 Name the process/phenomenon:
(i) That causes stems to be rigid and provides the force for the roots to penetrate into the soil.
(ii) That is used in the preservation of food stuffs like meat, fish and vegetables.
(iii) By which water from the soil enters the root.
(iv) Due to which the water balance in the human body is maintained.
(v) That causes the wilting of leaves of certain sensitive plants.
Q-8 Give reasons:
(i) Jams and pickles do not spoil easily.
(ii) Fresh water fish cannot survive in sea water.
(iii) A closed can of dried seeds bursts open if some water enters it by accident .
(iv) Plants growing in well fertilised soil wilt if the soil is not adequately watered .
(v) The roots of some plants are seen growing through walls and crevices.
(vi) Gargling with salt water help to cure sore throat.
Q-9
The figure represents a root hair.
(a) Label parts 1 to 5.
(b) Which part acts as a semipermeable membrane?
(c) Why is the root hair one-celled?
(d) Name and define the process by which water enters the cell.
(e) The root hair cell is in a turgid state. Name and explain the process that caused this state.
(f) Mention one distinct difference between the parts 1 and 3.
(g) Draw a diagram of the above root hair cell as it would appear when a concentrated solution of fertilisers is added near it.
Q-10 A complete ring of bark removed from a tree in spring. The tree continued to live through summer but a swelling appeared on the bark above ring while the bark below shrivelled up.
(a) Account for the swelling in the bark above the ring.
(b) Account for the shrinking of the bark below the ring.
(c) Name the tissue that distributes food in plants.
(d) Name the tissue that distributes water in plants.
(e) What is the role of a bark in a plant?
Q-11 An experiment was set up with a raw potato.
The skin of the tuber was removed and slices were taken off from all sides giving it the shape of a square block. The central portion was scooped out to form a cup. Strong sugar solution was put in the cup and the liquid level was marked by inserting a pin. The whole potato block was put in a dish containing water coloured with a drop of ink.
(a) What is the aim of the experiment?
(b) What is the purpose of the ink in the water?
(b) What change would you expect in the cavity of the potato after one hour?
(d) Give an explanation for this change.
(e) If the raw potato is replaced by a boiled potato, but otherwise treated in the same way, what difference would there be in the result of the experiment? Give an explanation for this change.
Q-12 Experiment:
A thin strip of epidermal cells from the fleshy scales of an onion bulb was exam- ined in a drop of water under a microscope.The cells appeared as shown in the figure alongside. The thin strip was then transferred to a drop of strong sugar solution and re-examined under the microscope after about five minutes.
(a) Make a sketch of one of the epidermal cell, as it might appear after immersion ~ in strong sugar solution. Label any two parts which have undergone a change.
(b) Give the scientific term for the change shown in (a) .
(c) What would you do to bring this cell back to its original condition?
(d) Give the scientific term used for the recovery of the cell as a result of the step taken in (c) above.
(b) Give the scientific term for the change shown in (i) .
Q-13 Study the diagram given alongside and answer the questions:
(a) What is the state of the cell shown in the diagram?
(b) Name the structure which acts as a selectively permeable membrane.
(c) If the cell had been placed in distilled water instead of strong sugar solution which feature would not have been present?
(d) Name any one feature of this plant cell which is not present in animal cells.
Q-14 The figure given below is a diagrammatic representation of a part of the cross section of the root in the root hair zone. Study the same and then answer the questions that follow:
(a) Name the parts indicated by guidelines '1' to '5'
(b) Name the process responsible for the entry of water molecules from the soil into A, and then A2.
(c) What pressure is responsible for the movement of water in the direction indicated by arrows?
(d) How is this pressure set up?
Q-15 The diagram represents a structure found in leaf. Study the same and answer the questions that follow:
(a) Name the parts labelled A and B.
(b) What is the biological term for the given structure?
(c) What is the function of the part labelled A?
(d) Mention two structural features of A which help in the function mentioned in (c)
(e) Where is this structure likely to be found in a leaf?
(f) The structure helps in the process of transpiration. Explain the term transpiration.
(g) How many other cells are found surrounding this structure as seen in the diagram?
Q-16 Given alongside is the diagram of an experiment just at the start. Study the diagram carefully and answer the following questions:
(a) What phenomenon is intended to be shown by this experiment?
(b) Which limb of the U-tube contains more concentrated sucrose solution - A or B?
(c) Why have the two kinds of molecules been shown in different sizes?
(d) Why is the membrane separating the two solutions labelled as semipermeable membrane?
(e) Which limb of the U-tube (A or B) is functionally comparable to the root hairs of a plant?
(f) Redraw the diagram to show the result of the experiment after a few hours.
(v) Which limb of the U-tube (A or B) is functionally comparable to the root hairs of a plant?
Chapter-4 Transpiration
Q-1 Choose the correct option from the brackets.
(i) Low atmospheric pressure (decreases/increases) the rate of transpiration .
(ii) Greater the humidity of air, (greater/lesser) is the rate of transpiration .
(iii) Higher is the temperature of air, (more/less) is the rate of transpiration .
(iv) The process in plants considered as 'price paid' for photosynthesis is (transpiration/respiration).
(v) In nerium the stomata are present in (sunken pits/lenticels).
(vi) Dorsiventral leaves have (more/less) stomata on their lower surface.
(vii) The epidermis of the leaf has numerous pores called (stomata/lenticels).
(viii) Transpiration is (more/less) when the wind velocity is high.
(ix) Sap that oozes out of a cut or injured part of a plant is called (guttation/bleeding).
(x) The intake of salts by the roots is (independent of/dependent on) the quantity of water absorbed.
Q-2 State whether the following statements are true or false:
(i) The intake of salts is independent of the quantity of water absorbed.
(ii) Cuticular transpiration is about 3% -10% of the total transpiration.
(iii) Water travels along the cell walls by imbibition.
(iv) Loss of potassium ions by the guard cells cause the stoma to close.
(v) High temperatures favour guttation.
(vi) Guard cells have large vacuoles
(vii) Most transpiration occurs at night.
(viii) Transpiration creates a pull for upward movement of sap.
(ix) Transpiration increases with decrease in atmospheric pressure.
(x) Ganong's potometer is used to measure water uptake during transpiration.
Q-3 State how the following plants are adapted to reduce transpiration.
(i) Desert plants (cactus)
(ii) Pine trees
(iii) Deciduous trees
(iv) Evergreen trees
(v) Shrubs
Q-4 Answer the following questions.
(1) List three ways a plant transpires.
(2) List three conditions that favour transpiration.
(3) List three differences between transpiration and guttation.
(4) Plant leaves contain stomata and human skin contains sweat pores. Mention two differences and two similarities in their functioning.
Q-5 Explain briefly:
(i) Stomata are more numerous on the lower surface of a dorsiventral leaf.
(ii) Leaves sometimes drip water at night.
(iii) During the day transpiration and photosynthesis are interlinked.
(iv) While setting up the potometer, the leafy shoot should be cut under water.
(v) Forests tend to bring more frequent rain.
Q-6 The apparatus shown is used to study a certain experiment on transpiration.
(a) Name the apparatus.
(b) What is the aim of the experiment?
(c) Why is the shoot cut under water and then fixed to the apparatus?
(d) How is the bubble introduced into the capillary tube?
(e) What do you observe in this experiment?
(f) What can you infer from this observation?
(g) State one limitation of this apparatus.
(h) State one advantage of this apparatus.
(i) How can you restart the experiment?
(j) What is the purpose of the oil layer on the water surface in the reservoir?
(k) State one advantage and one disadvantage of this apparatus.
(l) List three advantages of transpiration.
Q-7 The diagram alongside shows a portion of the internal tissues of a xerophytic leaf.
(a) Point out two features that support the xerophytic nature of the leaf.
(b) Explain how each feature helps to control transpiration.
(c) Name a metabolic inhibitor used to control transpiration.
(d) Why do some trees shed their leaves?
Q-8 Answer these Questions.
(a) What is the apparatus shown alongside called? State its purpose.
(b) State the use of: (i) Capillary tube (ii) Scale (iii) Water reservoir
(c) What happens to the movement of air bubbles if the apparatus is kept under the following conditions: (i) In a warm room in still air. (ii) In an air conditioned room. (iii) In a warm room in front of a fan. (iv) In sunlight
Q-9 The diagram represents a certain physiological process in plants:
(a) Name the process.
(b) What is the purpose of this experiment?
(c) Why is the pot covered with a polythene bag?
(d) What precautions are taken to ensure proper results in the experiment?
(e) What is the structure labelled X?
(f) What change would you observe in X after a while? Explain.
(g) Suggest a suitable control experiment for comparison.
Q-10 This is an experimental set up to study the process of transpiration in plants. Answer the questions that follow:
(a) What is the colour of dry cobalt chloride paper?
(b) Is the experimental leaf a monocot or a dicot? Give a reason to support your answer.
(c) Why are glass slides placed over the dry cobalt chloride papers?
(d) After about half an hour what change, if any, would you expect to find in the cobalt chloride paper placed on the upper and lower sides of the leaf? Give a reason to support your answer.
Q-11 And answer the questions based on the given diagram:
(a) Explain the physiological process being studied.
(b) What will be observed in the two test tubes after 2-3 days?
(c) Give a reason for your answer in (b) above?
(d) Why is the surface of water covered with oil?
(e) State the purpose of setting up test tube B.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 Transpiration is the loss of water in the form of water vapour from:
(i)
Any surface of the plant body(ii)
Stomata of leaves(iii)
Aerial parts of a plant body(iv)
All of the aboveQ-2 Transpiration pull is maximum when:
(i)
Stomata is open, soil is moist, air is dry(ii)
Stomata is closed, soil and air are dry(iii)
Stomata is open, air and soil are moist(iv)
Stomata is open, soil is dry, air is moistQ-3 Transpiration takes place:
(i)
During the day(ii)
During the night(iii)
During day and night(iv)
As long as the stomata are openQ-4 Which of these is not an anatomical adaptation to reduce excessive transpiration :
(i)
Leaves are rolled up or shed(ii)
Leaves have multiple epidermis(iii)
Leaves have sunken stomata(iv)
Leaves have cutinised hairQ-5 Which of the following is NOT TRUE about transpiration?
(i)
Transpiration brings rain(ii)
Transpiration cools the plant(iii)
Still air increases rate of transpiration(iv)
Transpiration enables ascent of sapChapter-5 Photosynthesis
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
(i) In photosynthesis, radiant energy is converted into ________________ .
(ii) In regard to photosynthesis, _______________ is the source of oxygen.
(iii) The photolysis of water and CO2 fixation takes place in the ____________________ .
(iv) _____________ is an important mineral constituent of chlorophyll.
(v) In photosynthesis ____________ is reduced _______________ and is oxidised.
Fill in the blanks: (i) In photosynthesis, radiant energy is converted into ________________ .
Q-2 Complete the following by filling in the blanks numbered (i) to (x) with the appropriate word/term:
Photosynthesis involves light reaction and dark reaction. During light reaction, the chlorophyll present in the (i) ____________ gets activated by absorbing light energy. This energy splits (ii) _______ molecules to (iii) ___________ and __________ ions. This process is called (iv) _____________ The (v) ____________ ions are picked up by NADP to form (vi) ___________ The ADP is converted to (vii) _____________ This process is called (viii) ___________ During the dark phase, the compound produced at the end of light reaction reacts with carbon dioxide to form (ix) ___________ . This product is converted to starch. The process is called (x) ______________ .
Photosynthesis involves light reaction and dark reaction. During light reaction, the chlorophyll present in the (i) _______ gets activated by absorbing light energy. This energy splits (ii) _______ molecules to (iii) ______ and _______ ions. This process is called (iv) -------· The (v) _______ ions are picked up by NADP to form (vi) ______ _ The ADP is converted to (vii) _______ . This process is called (viii) _______ . During the dark phase, the compound produced at the end of light reaction reacts with carbon dioxide to form (ix) _______ . This product is converted to starch. The process is called (x) ______________ .
Q-3 Fill in the blanks (i) to (v) with appropriate words/terms/phrases:
To test the leaf for starch, the leaf is boiled in water to (i) ___________ . It is next boiled in methylated spirit to (ii) ____________ . The leaf is placed in warm water to soften it. It is then placed in a dish and (iii) ____________ solution is added. The region which contains starch turns (iv) _____________ and the region which does not contain starch, turns (v) _____________ .
To test the leaf for starch, the leaf is boiled in water to (i) _______ . It is next boiled in methylated spirit to (ii) _______ . The leaf is placed in warm water to soften it. It is then placed in a dish and (iii) _______ solution is added. The region which contains starch turns (iv) _______ and the region which does not contain starch, turns (v) _____________ .
Q-4 Answer the following questions.
(1) Name the main raw materials and their sources, in the process of photosynthesis by plants.
(2) Give the overall reaction for photosynthesis.
(3) Name the substance that is getting oxidised and the substance that is getting reduced.
(4) Name the source of oxygen.
(5) What is the role of chloroplast in the above reaction?
(6) What is the role of sunlight in the above reaction?
(7) What is the ratio (by volume) of carbon dioxide absorbed to that of oxygen given out?
(8) What is the energy change taking place in this reaction?
(9) Name the first important stable product formed during carbon dioxide fixation.
(10) All life would come to an end if there were no green plants.
Q-5 Experiments based on photosynthesis are followed by the starch test performed on the leaves. The procedure for the starch is described below. State the reason for carrying out each
(i) The leaf is detached from the plant and dipped in boiling water for 30 seconds.
(ii) The leaf is boiled in methylated spirit which is placed over a water bath.
(iii) The leaf is removed and once again dipped in boiling water.
(iv) The leaf is placed on a white tile and dilute iodine solution is poured over it.
Q-6 An experiment was set up as explained below.
A cut leafy shoot was placed in a beaker containing water and placed under a bell jar. A lighted candle was also introduced inside the jar. After the candle was extinguished, the entire apparatus was placed in sunlight.
(i) Why was the lighted candle introduced inside the jar?
(ii) Why did the candle get extinguished?
(iii) If after a few hours of being left in sunlight, a lighted taper is introduced inside the bell jar, what would you observe? Explain.
Q-7 State whether the following statements are true or false.
(i) Chlorophyll plays a catalytic role in photosynthesis.
(ii) During photosynthesis, radiant energy is converted into chemical energy.
(iii) Oxygen is a by-product of photosynthesis.
(iv) Photosynthesis is an endothermic process.
(v) Molecular oxygen is produced during the light phase of photosynthesis.
Q-8 Answer the following questions.
A healthy potted geranium plant with variegated leaves was watered and left in the sunlight for several hours. A leaf was then plucked and tested for starch. It was found that a part of the leaf had starch, but the other had no starch.
(i) What is the experiment designed to show?
(ii) How would you account for the presence of starch in some parts of the plant but absence in other parts?
(iii) What experimental details have been omitted while performing the experiment?
Q-9 Explain the following:
(i) When performing the starch test the leaf is first boiled in water and then in methylated spirit.
(ii) In most leaves the upper surface is a darker green than the lower surface .
(iii) Before performing any experiment on photosynthesis, the plant must be destarched .
(iv) In experiments of photosynthesis it is important to place the apparatus in sunlight.
(v) Photosynthesis results in the loss of dry weight of the plant.
(vi) The optimum temperature for photosynthesis to take place is about 35°C.
(vii) The food chain is a part of the carbon cycle.
(viii) If the rate of respiration exceeds the rate of photosynthesis the plant will continue to live, but will not be able to store food .
(ix) During photosynthesis the oxygen in glucose comes from the carbon dioxide molecule.
(x) During photosynthesis carbon dioxide is reduced and water is oxidised .
Q-10 Describe the main chemical changes which occur during photosynthesis in:
(i) Light Reaction
(ii) Dark Reaction
Q-11 Name the following:
(i) The site of light dependent reaction during photosynthesis.
(ii) The chemical substance used to test the presence of starch in a leaf.
(iii) The ground substance or fluid in the chloroplast.
(iv) A stable intermediate product formed during the dark reaction.
(v) The expanded form of ATP.
(vi) The expanded form of NADP .
(vii) An enzyme that helps to release molecular oxygen during the light phase of photosynthesis.
(viii) A plant which has variegated leaves.
(ix) A chemical that is used in experiments of photosynthesis to increase the rate of photosynthesis.
(x) A human activity that releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.
Q-12 State the following:
(i) Any three adaptations found in leaves that favour the process of photosynthesis.
(ii) Any three factors that can limit the speed of photosynthesis.
(iii) The function of glucose in plants.
(iv) The experimental conditions that must be performed before conducting any experiment of photosynthesis.
(v) Three natural sources that add carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.
Q-13 An experiment was set up as shown below to show that oxygen is evolved during photosynthesis.
(a) Is it necessary to destarch the plant? Explain.
(b) Why is a short stemmed funnel used?
(c) Why is the funnel kept slightly raised?
(d) What important experimental detail has been omitted in this experiment? Hence name the gas that would collect in the inverted test-tube.
Q-14 The diagram represents a diagrammatic section through part of a leaf.
(a) Label the parts indicated by letters A to F.
(b) State the role of C.
(c) Name the gases that are likely to diffuse in the direction of the arrows: a. During the day b. At night time
(d) Mention three ways in which the leaf is adapted to perform the function of photosynthesis.
Q-15 Two healthy green plants were placed in the dark for 24 hours. They were then set up as shown in the figure and left for 4 hours. A leaf was taken from each plant and the chlorophyll was removed from the leaves.
(a) How is the chlorophyll removed?
(b) What is the next and final step in this experiment?
(c) What would be the result of the final step?
(d) Why is it necessary to grease the glass sheet?
(e) What hypothesis is being tested in this experiment?
(f) Which of the two plants would serve as the control?
Q-16 A healthy potted geranium plant with variegated leaves was watered and left in the sunlight for several hours. A leaf was then plucked and tested for starch. It was found that a part of the leaf had starch, but the other had no starch.
(a) What is the experiment designed to show?
(b) How would you account for the presence of starch in some parts of the plant but absence in other parts?
(c) What experimental details have been omitted while performing the experiment?
Q-17 The setup represents an experiment conducted to prove the importance of a factor in photosynthesis. The entire apparatus was placed in a dark room for 48 hours before being kept in sunlight.
(a) Name the factor being studied in this experiment.
(b) Why was the plant kept in a dark room before conducting experiment?
(c) Why was the experimental leaf then kept in- i. boiling water ii. methylated spirit?
(d) Name the solution used to test for presence of starch in the leaf.
(e) What will be observed in the experimental leaf at the end of the starch test?
(f) Give a balanced chemical equation to represent the process of photosynthesis.
(c) Why was the experimental leaf then kept in
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The rate of photosynthesis is not affected by
(i)
Light intensity(ii)
Carbon dioxide concentration(iii)
Humidity(iv)
Atmospheric pressureQ-2 The water formed during photosynthesis:
(i)
is the original soil water(ii)
is reformed during the chemical reactions(iii)
is formed from atmospheric moisture(iv)
none of theseQ-3 In photosynthesis the catalyst is:
(i)
Sunlight(ii)
Chlorophyll(iii)
Carbon dioxide(iv)
All of theseQ-4 Starch and not glucose is used as a measure of photosynthesis because:
(i)
Glucose is immediately used up by the plan(ii)
Glucose is immediately converted into starch and temporarily stored in leaves.(iii)
Starch is soluble in water.(iv)
Starch is the immediate product of photosynthesis.Chapter-6 Chemical Coordination in Plants
Q-1 Give one term for the following:
(i) Growth of plants in response to gravity.
(ii) A mechanical device used by plant physiologists to rotate a biological specimen.
(iii) The directional response of a plant organ to touch.
(iv) The production of fruit without fertilisation or seed production.
(v) The opening of young, folded leaves.
(vi) The premature production of a flowering stem on agricultural or horticultural crops.
(vii) The movement or growth of a plant due to chemical stimulus.
(viii) Plant movements which are neither towards nor away from the stimulus.
(ix) The ageing process in plants.
(x) The diurnal or seasonal motion of plant parts in response to the direction of the Sun.
Q-2 Fill in the blanks:
(i) Genetic dwarfness can be overcome by treatment with the hormone ___________________ .
(ii) To prevent over ripening, banana should be given a dip in __________ acid.
(iii) Ageing of plant organs can be delayed with the help of the hormone ________________ .
(iv) Delay in senescence is caused by a spray of ______________ .
(v) Abscission is prevented by ______________ .
(vi) Auxins are translocated to the region of elongation by _______________ .
(vii) Accumulation of auxin on the lower side of the root accounts for the _______ curvature.
(viii) The movement a plant or plant part due to chemical stimulus is called _______________ .
(ix) The plant pigment _______ is sensitive to certain wavelengths of light.
(x) _______ light causes phototropism.
(xi) The hormone inhibits _______ uptake of potassium ions by the guard cells.
(xii) _____________ promotes stem elongation and enzyme production in seeds.
(xiii) The plant hormone _________ is produced by ageing fruit.
(xiv) __________ produces lateral bud dormancy.
(xv) _________ inhibits the effect of other hormones.
(xvi)___________ would cause the stem to grow towards a source of light.
(xvii) _____________ stimulates cell division in plants by inducing mitosis in root and shoot cells.
(xviii) __________ is produced in the apical portion of stem.
(xix) ________ causes leaves to age and fall off the plant.
(xx) _________ responsible for inhibiting growth in developing leaves and germinating seeds.
(xii) Promotes stem elongation and enzyme production in seeds.
(xiii) To prevent over ripening, banana should be given a dip in ________ acid.
Q-3 Plant roots are attracted towards moisture.
(i) State the importance of this tropic movement to the plant.
(ii) Does auxin move towards moisture or away from moisture?
(iii) A root is positively gravitropic and positively hydrotropic. To which stimulus does a root show a stronger response - water or gravity? Explain your answer.
(iv) If tiny pebbles obstruct the path of the root, which hormone would help it to reach the water?
Q-4 State the role of auxins in the following:
(i) Apical dominance
(ii) Parthenocarpy
(iii) Phototropism
(iv) Abscission
Q-5 What is a meristem? Where are the following meristems located and what is their role?
(i) Apical meristem
(ii) Lateral meristem
(iii) lntercalary meristem
Q-6 Explain briefly:
(i) Cut or excised leaves remain green for long if cut part is dipped in cytokinins.
(ii) Gibberellins promote seed germination.
(iii) Abscisic acid causes stomata closure.
(iv) If the growing plant is decapitated, the axillary buds are activated.
(v) Mowing grass lawn facilitates better maintenance.
(vi) A plant attached to a clinostat grows horizontally when the clinostat rotates .
Q-7 Explain the advantage of the following processes or substances to plants:
(i) Photosynthesis
(ii) Growth inhibiting hormone
(iii) Delayed abscission
(iv) Bolting in agricultural crops
(v) Root initiation on stem cuttings
(vi) Removal of apical dominance.
Q-8 State whether the following statements are true or false. Correct the incorrect statement.
(i) Coiling of garden pea tendrils around any support is an example of thignonasty.
(ii) Natural cytokinins are synthesized in tissues that are dividing rapidly.
(iii) Differentiation of shoot is controlled by a high auxin:cytokinin ratio.
(iv) Opening of floral buds into flowers is a type of autonomic movement of growth called epinasty.
(v) Cell elongation in internodal regions of green plants takes place due to indole-acetic acid .
(vi) Auxin is responsible for preventing the leaves from shedding.
(vii) Gibberellin is found in the gaseous state.
(viii) Cytokinin is helpful in making RNA and protein.
(ix) Abscisic acid helps in breaking seed dormancy of plant.
(x) Gibberellins increase the activity of cambium in woody plants.
Q-9 Study the table based on the key functions of plant hormones and answer the questions that follow.
(a) Name three hormones in the table that can be group d as "growth promoters'. Support your answer.
(b) Which of the growth promoter influences growth by inducing cell division?
(c) Which two growth promoters show pronounced growth activity when used in combination?
(d) Which hormone is capable of suppressing the stimulatory effect of growth processes of the plant hormones named in (a)? What are such hormones called?
(e) Select a feature of ethylene and explain how this feature is useful to the farmer.
(f) Select two features of abscisic acid and explain the importance of each to the plant.
(g) Explain the agnostic role of auxin and ethylene in leaf fall.
Q-10 The drawings A, B and C shown are of three separate experiments performed to test the effect of a certain plant hormone on the growth of plant shoots.
(a) In experiment A, diagram 1, show with red dots where you think the growth hormone is produced. Use experiments B and C to help with your explanation.
(b) In experiment A, diagram 2, show with a red line the direction and movement of the growth hormone.
(c) What effect does the hormone have on the part of the shoot that it moves to?
(d) What tropic movement does this hormone bring about in the shoot?
(e) Explain the importance of this tropic movement to the plant.
(f) Name the plant hormone under study.
Q-11 The drawings show a root that has bent downwards and a shoot that has bent upwards.
(a) Name the positive tropic movement observed in the root.
(b) State the importance of the tropic movement named in (a) to the plant.
(c) In roots, does auxin have the same, or opposite effect, as in shoots?
(d) Make a drawing to show the distribution of auxin at X and Y.
(b) State the importance of the tropic movement named in (i) to the plant.
Q-12 Study the diagram and answer the questions:
(a) Name the structure on plant B that is seen winding around structure A.
(b) Why does plant B need a support like A?
(c) What is this type of plant movement called?
(d) Name two plants that show this type of tropism.
(e) Name the hormones that facilitate this growth process.
(f) Identify the plant part that has been modified for climbing.
Chapter-7 The Cardiovascular System
Q-1 Differentiate between (one significant difference):
(i) Blood and Lymph
(ii) Pulmonary Artery and Pulmonary Vein
(iii) Atria and Ventricles
(iv) Right atrium and Left atrium
Q-2 State the site (location) and function of the following:
(i) Bicuspid valve
(ii) Hepatic portal vein
(iii) Spleen
(iv) Tonsils
Q-3 Answer the following questions
(1) What are the sounds "LUBB" and "DUPP" produced during a heartbeat?
Q-4 Name the blood vessel that:
(a) Begins and ends in capillaries.
(b) Supplies blood to the walls of the heart.
Q-5 Distinguish between the following pairs on the basis of features indicated in brackets.
(i) Left atrioventricular valve and right atrioventricular valve (Structure)
(ii) Atrial systole and Ventricular systole (Valves open)
(iii) Pulmonary circulation and Systemic circulation (Site of origin)
(iv) Arterioles and Venules (Formation)
(v) Mesenteric artery and Hepatic artery (Region supplied)
(vi) Blood pressure and Pulse (Definition)
(vii) Heart sounds lubb and dupp (Cause)
Q-6 Answer the following
(1) State three characteristics of blood.
(2) Nearly 90% of the plasma is water. Mention two functions of the water present in blood.
(3) (i) What are blood clots? Outline the main stages in the formation of a clot. (ii) Mention two ways by which stored blood can be prevented from clotting .
(4) (i) What is a blood group? (ii) Explain the importance of matching blood groups at the time of blood transfusion. (iii) What is the Rh factor?
(5) Mention two protective functions of the blood.
(6) Mention two regulatory functions of the blood.
(7) Name any four substances that are transported by blood.
(8) What is a blood group?
(9) What is the consequence of transfusing Rh positive blood to a Rh negative individual?
Q-7 Distinguish between the following pairs on the basis of features indicated in brackets.
(i) Fibrinogen and Heparin (Function)
(ii) Erythrocyte and Leucocyte (Shape, number, life span)
(iii) Serum and Defibrinated blood (Composition)
Q-8 Differentiate between the following:
(i) Antibody and Antigen
(ii) Eosinophil and Basophil
(iii) Plasma and Serum
(iv) Lymphocytes and Monocytes
Q-9 Explain the following terms:
(i) Blood transfusion
(ii) Phagocytosis
Q-10 State one similarity and one difference between the following pairs.
(i) Blood plasma and serum
(ii) Serum and defibrinated blood
Q-11 Without conducting any microscopic examination, how can you determine whether a cut vessel is a/an
(i) Artery
(ii) Vein
(iii) Capillary
(iv) Lymphatic vessel
Q-12 Explain the following terms:
(i) Antigen
(ii) Antibody
(iii) Phagocytosis
(iv) Diapedesis
Q-13 Name
(i) A chemical substance formed in the blood that converts prothrombin into thrombin.
(ii) The compound formed when carbon dioxide combines with the haemoglobin of the blood.
(iii) The type of leucocyte concerned mainly with the production of antibodies.
(iv) A constituent of blood that initiates the clotting process.
(v) The process by which red blood cells are formed.
(vi) The process by which white blood cells are formed.
(vii) The condition in which the white blood cell count is abnormally high.
(viii) The condition in which the red blood cell count is abnormally high.
(ix) The condition in which the red blood cell count is abnormally low.
(x) The condition in which the white blood cell count is abnormally low.
Q-14 The diagram represents a blood smear.
(a) Identify A, B and C giving their scientific name.
(b) State three differences between A and B.
(c) State one important function of each.
(d) State two characteristics of B that enable it to carry out its function.
Q-15 Study the figures A, B and C shown below and answer the questions that follow:
(a) Name the type of blood vessel shown in A.
(b) Name the two structures 1 and 2 shown in A.
(c) Mention two structural differences between 1 and 2.
(d) Name the process taking place in A.
(e) Identify the phenomenon occurring in B.
(f) Name the process occurring C.
(g) State the importance of processes B and C in the human body.
Q-16 The diagram represents a mammalian heart.
(a) Label parts 1 to 12.
(b) From where does structure labelled 10 receive blood?
(c) State the functions of part 4 and 11 .
(d) Where does the vessel labelled 2 lead?
(e) What does SAN denote? What is its common name?
(f) Where is SAN located in the heart? What is its function?
(g) Account for the unequal thickening of the walls of the 10 heart.
(h) Name the membrane covering the heart.
(i) What are great vessels?
(j) Name the great vessels which join and leave the heart.
Q-17 Given below is a schematic representation of the circulatory system in humans. Study the same and answer the questions that follow:
(a) Label the parts 1 to 4 indicated in the diagram
(b) Give one difference between the parts 1 and 2 based on: a. their structure b. the nature of blood flowing through them.
(c) Give the specific name of the type of blood circulation that takes place between the heart and the lungs.
(d)Name the valve found at the beginning of the part labelled 3.
Name the valve found at the beginning of the part labelled 3.
Q-18 The diagrams given alongside show the cross section of three kinds of blood vessels, A, Band C.
(a) Identify A, B and C. Give a reason to support your answer.
(b) Name the parts labelled 1 - 4.
(c) Mention two structural differences between A and B.
(d) Name the type of blood that flows: a. through A b. through B.
(d) In which of the vessel named in (i) does exchange of gases actually take place?
Q-19 Given alongside is a simple diagram of the circulation of blood in a mammal showing the main blood vessel, the heart, the lungs and the body tissues. The blood vessel labelled 6 contains deoxygenated blood and the valve leading to it has three semilunar pockets.
(a) Name the blood vessel or organs marked by number 1 - 8.
(b) Explain the term double circulation of blood and state its significance in mammals.
(c) What is diastole?
Q-20 The diagram below shows part of the capillary bed in an organ of the mammalian body. Some of the blood arriving at the capillaries at points labelled A moves out into the spaces between the tissue cells. Study the diagram and answer the questions that follow:
(a) What is the liquid that oozes out from the blood and surrounds the tissue cells called?
(b) Name any one important component of the blood which remains inside the capillaries and fails to move out into spaces.
(c) Some of the liquid surrounding the cells does not pass directly back into the blood but eventually reaches it by another route through vessel X. Name the fluid present in vessel X.
(d) State two important functions performed in our body by the fluid present in vessel X.
Chapter-8 The Excretory System
Q-1 Answer the following questions
(1) Define excretion.
(2) Name any three excretory organs and also the substances excreted by the named organs.
(3) Name three organic and three inorganic constituents of the glomerular filtrate.
(4) Name three substances that are reabsorbed from the renal tubules by the secondary capillaries.
(5) Draw a neatly labelled sketch of the kidney as observed in longitudinal section.
(6) Name four organs of excretion and list the products excreted by each.
Q-2 Differentiate between the following pairs:
(i) Ureter and Urethra
(ii) Afferent arteriole and Efferent arteriole
(iii) Renal cortex and Renal medulla
(iv) Renal papillae and Renal pelvis
(v) Active absorption and Passive absorption.
Q-3 Explain briefly:
(i) Energy requirement of the kidney is very high.
(ii) The efferent arteriole branches to form a network of secondary capillaries.
(iii) Urination is more frequent during the day than at night.
(iv) Urination is more frequent in winter than in summer.
(v) A person can live normally even if one kidney fails to function.
Q-4 Briefly explain the following terms:
(i) Ultrafiltration
(ii) Tubular secretion
(iii) Osmoregulation
(iv) Dialysis
(v) Sphincter muscle
(vi) Vasodilation
Q-5 State one function of:
(i) Bladder sphincter
(ii) Henle's loop
(iii) Collecting tubule
(iv) Sweat glands
(v) Renal vein
(vi) Vasopressin
Q-6 State whether the following statements are true or false:
(i) If excess water intake dilutes the body fluids, ADH secretion rises.
(ii) The oxygen demand of the kidneys is 6-7 times higher than that required by muscles.
(iii) Maximum water is absorbed in the PCT.
(iv) The net filtration pressure in the glomerulus is 25 mm of Hg.
(v) Vasoconstriction results in more water being extracted from the kidneys.
(vi) The average output of sweat in normal adults is 0 .5 - 0 .6 litres per day.
(vii) The average daily output of urine in normal adults is 1 5 - 18 litres per day.
(viii) Normal urine is slightly alkaline.
(ix) There are approximately 2 million nephrons in each kidney.
(x) Sodium chloride is the most abundant compound present in urine.
(xi) Kidneys regulate the pH of the blood.
(xii) Daily production of primary urine is 5 - 8 litres.
(xiii) The secondary capillaries fuse to form the renal vein.
(xiv) The efferent arteriole is twice as thick as the afferent arteriole.
(xv) The nephron is composed of the Malphigian body, renal tubules and collecting tubules.
Q-7 Correct the following statements by changing only one word:
(i) Glucose is absorbed from the nephric filtrate by osmosis.
(ii) Carbon dioxide and urea are removed through the lungs.
(iii) The glomeruli are in the medulla of the kidney.
(iv) Urea is made in the kidney during deamination of proteins.
Q-8 Arrange the terms in the correct sequence.
(i) Glomerulus, renal vein, efferent arteriole, renal artery, afferent arteriole, secondary capillaries
(ii) Renal artery, urethra, ureter, kidney, urinary bladder
Q-9 Write the approximate values of the following:
(i) PH of normal urine in adults.
(ii) Daily average intake of fluid for a normal adult.
(iii) Average daily output of normal urine in adults.
(iv) Amount of urea in normal urine of an adult.
(v) Total number of nephrons in a normal adult.
Q-10 Name the following:
(i) The hormone that increases water absorption.
(ii) The pigment produced by the breakdown of haemoglobin.
(iii) The pigment that imparts yellow colour to the urine.
(iv) The tube that carries water away from the kidneys.
(v) The common term for Bowman's capsule and the glomerulus.
(vi) The process by which urine moves from the kidneys to the urinary bladder.
(vii) The ducts that transports urine to the urinary bladder.
(viii) The process by which water is reabsorbed into the secondary capillaries.
(ix) The process by which useful solutes are reabsorbed into the secondary capillaries.
(x) The most abundant inorganic constituent of urine.
(xi) The term used for expulsion of the urine from the bladder.
(xii) The part of the renal tubule that is permeable to water.
(xiii) The part of the renal tubule that is impermeable to water.
(xiv) The part of the kidney that contains elements of Henle's loop and the collecting tubules.
(xv) The hormone which has an antidiuretic effect.
Q-11 Study the diagram below and answer the following questions:
(a) Label parts 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5.
(b) State the structural difference between parts 1 and 2.
(c) What stage in urine formation occurs in this part?
(d) Name the liquid flowing through 5.
(e) What is the composition of the liquid in 5?
(f) What is the name used for parts 3 and 4 taken together?
Q-12 Given below is a simple diagram of the human kidney cut open longitudinally.
(a) Name the functional unit of the kidney. How many such units are present in the kidney of an adult human?
(b) Why does the cortex of the kidney show a dotted appearance?
(c) Mention two functions of the kidney.
(d) Write two differences in the composition of the blood flowing through blood vessels A and B.
(e) Name the renal tubules that are found in the medulla.
(f) Name parts 1 and 2.
Q-13 Given alongside is the figure of certain organs and associated parts in the human body. Study the same and then answer the questions that follow:
(a) Name all the organ systems shown completely or even partially.
(b) Name the parts numbered 1 to 5.
(c) Name and describe the steps involved in the formation of the fluid that passes down the part labelled '3'.
(d) Name two structures, one internal and one external, that control the exit of the fluid in 4. State one significant difference between the two structures.
(e) What is the mechanism by which the fluid is transported from 1 to 4?
(f) What is the term used to describe the expulsion of the liquid from 4?
Q-14 Label the parts indicated by arrows and answer the questions that follow:
(a) Name the organ where the structure shown alongside is found.
(b) State three functions carried out by the organ named in (a).
(c) Give a collective term for parts: a. 3 and 5 b. 3, 5, 7 and 8
(d) Differentiate between parts 1 and 2 on the basis of: Structure , Chemical composition of their content.
(e) Name the process that occurs in part 8.
(f) Name the liquid formed as a result of the process taking place at 3.
(g) What is part 1 called after it branches? State its purpose.
(h) Trace the path of the liquid contained in part 7 until it is expelled from the body.
(i) Shade in red the part where maximum water is absorbed and in blue, the part where only mineral ions are absorbed.
(j) Name the part which contains the highest concentration of urea.
(k) Name the part which contains the lowest concentration of glucose.
Chapter-9 The Nervous System and Sense Organs: Eye and Ear
Q-1 Answer the following questions
(1) Name two kinds of nerve cells and state the function of each.
(2) Name one neurotransmitter.
(3) What is the nature of an impulse?
(4) Draw a labelled diagram of a myelinated neuron.
(5) Draw a labelled diagram of a myelinated neuron.
(5) Explain the difference between a sensory nerve and a motor nerve.
Q-2 Explain the role of the following:
(i) A neurotransmitter
(ii) Sensory neurons
(iii) lnterneurons
(iv) Motor neurons
(v) Dura mater
(vi) Cerebrospinal fluid
Q-3 In which part of the brain are the following located? Also state its functions:
(i) Olfactory lobes
(ii) Thalamus
(iii) Corpus callosum
(iv) Optic lobes
Q-4 Differentiate between the following pairs on the basis of what is given in brackets:
(i) Choroid and Sclerotic layers of the eye (two characteristics)
(ii) Dynamic Balance and Static Balance (meaning and set of control)
(iii) Rods and Cones (pigment and function)
(iv) Yellow spot and Blind spot (location and characteristic)
(v) Sensory neuron and Motor neuron (function)
(vi) Myopia and Hypermetropia (cause of defect and corrective lens)
(vii) Reflex action and Conditioned reflex (set of control)
(viii) Astigmatism and Cataract (cause of defect and corrective measure)
(ix) Myelinated and Non-myelinated neuron (location and function)
(x) Sympathetic and Parasympathetic nerves (location and function)
(xi) Involuntary action and Reflex action (meaning and example)
(xii) Conditioned and Unconditioned reflex (meaning and example)
(xiii) Left and Right hemisphere of the brain (function)
(xiv) Forebrain and Hindbrain (brain parts that make up each)
(xv) Thalamus and Hypothalamus (function)
Q-5 Define accommodation of the eye and answer the questions that follows:
(i) Name the defect that results when the eye loses its power of accommodation due to age.
(ii) State the changes that occur in the following structures when the eye accommodates for near vision. a. Ciliary muscle b. Suspensory ligament c. Lens
(iii) Explain how the shape and position of the eye is maintained.
Q-6 Jai puts his hand on a nail. He quickly withdraws his hand and shouts in pain.
(a) What type of nervous system is involved when Jai withdraws his hand?
Q-7 Complete the following sentences
(i) When Jai puts his hand on a nail, pressure is put on a _______ .
(ii) Nerve impulses then travel via _______ neurons.
(iii) These impulses are _______ in nature.
(iv) These impulses will go first to the _______ .
Q-8 State whether the following statements are true or false. Correct the incorrect statements:
(i) The cerebral peduncles connect the two lobes of the cerebellum.
(ii) The pons varolii connect the anterior region of the brain with the posterior.
(iii) The ECG measures brain waves.
(iv) The outer covering of the nerve fibre is called medullary sheath.
(v) The axon can regenerate itself if cut or injured.
(vi) Involuntary action involves muscles and glands.
(vii) The axon conducts impulses towards the cell body.
(viii) Myopia is corrected by using glasses of convex lens.
(ix) Rods are concentrated towards the periphery of the retina.
(x) Adaptation is the ability of the eye to focus at far and near objects.
Q-9 Before crossing the road you look to either side of the road and then walk across if there is no risk or danger involved. Select the part/s involved in this process:
(i) Only the skeletal muscles.
(ii) The cerebrum and the skeletal muscles.
(iii) The cerebrum, the skeletal muscles and the medulla oblongata.
(iv) The cerebrum, the cerebellum and the skeletal muscles.
Q-10 Name or give the biological term/technical term for the following:
(i) Structural and functional unit of the nervous system.
(ii) Long thread like part of the nerve cell.
(iii) The part of the human brain which controls body temperature.
(iv) Lower part of the brain which contains reflex centre like cardiac centre, respiratory and vasomotor centre.
(v) Wave of electrical disturbance that sweeps over the nerve cell.
(vi) The layers protecting the brain.
(vii) The liquid which protects the brain from shock.
(viii) The components of the forebrain.
(ix) Largest region of the brain.
(x) Association of two neurons.
(xi) Outer protective membrane of the brain.
(xii) Fluid contained in the labyrinth of the inner ear.
(xiii) The smallest bone in the human body.
(xiv) Part of the ear concerned with dynamic balance.
(xv) Fluid in the eye that fills the space between the lens and the cornea.
(xvi) Cell body of the neuron.
(xvii) Chemicals responsible for passing the impulse from one neuron to another.
(xviii) Branched protoplasmic extensions of the cell body.
(xix) Gaps in the insulating layer enclosing the axon.
(xx) Sensory cells in the eye concerned with colour vision.
(xxi) Part of the brain that coordinates muscular activity.
(xxii) Part of the brain that coordinates involuntary actions.
(xxiii) Bone in the middle ear fastened to the oval window.
(xxiv) Structure in the cochlea concerned with reception of sound.
(xxv) Process of the neuron that conducts impulses away from the muscle or tissue.
(xxvi) Transverse fibres connecting the hemispheres of the brain.
(xxvii) Bundle of axons enclosed in a tubular sheath.
(xxviii) The part of the eye which can be donated from a clinically dead person.
Q-11 Study the diagram shown alongside and answer the following questions:
(i) What handicaps would result from: damage to part 3. damage to part 4
(ii) Name the brain membranes.
(iii) Why is the brain surface highly convoluted with ridges and grooves?
(iv) What is meningitis?
(v) State the function of parts 1, 2 and 5.
Q-12 The diagram shown represents the human brain as seen in an external view. Study the same and then answer the question that follow:
(a) Name the parts labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4.
(b) Mention the difference in the arrangement of the nerve cells in the parts marked '1' and '4'.
(c) What is the main function of the parts marked '3' and '4'?
(d) Name the sheet of nerve fibres that connect the two halves of the part labelled '1 ' .
(e) What is the structural and functional unit of the nervous system?
(f) Name the fluid that surrounds the brain. State its function.
Q-13 Answer the following questions.
(a) Label parts 1 to 12 in the diagram of the eye shown below.
(b) State the function of 1, 2, 3, 6, 7, 11, 12.
(c) Name the eye defect shown in the diagram. Name the type of lens used to correct this defect. Also give two possible reasons for this defect of the eye in human beings.
(d) What happens when light falls on part 5?
(e) Name a structure shown in the diagram but has not been labelled. Mark and label it. Also state its function.
(f) Shade in pink colour the anterior chamber of the eye and name the fluid present in it. State the function of the named fluid.
(g) Show with red dots the part of the eye which has a greater distribution of rods. What is the function of rods?
Q-14 Answer the following questions.
(a) Label parts 1 to 10 in the diagram of the ear shown below.
(b) State the function of 1, 4, 5, 6 and 7.
(c) What handicaps would result from a clogged eustachian tube?
(d) Why does a person lose his balance after turning round quickly several times?
(e) A noise is made near you. Describe briefly how you hear it.
(f) Explain the consequences if there was an injury to part 3.
Q-15 Given alongside is the diagram of a part of the human ear. Study the same and then answer the questions that follow:
(a) Name the parts labelled A, B, C and D in the diagram.
(b) Name the part/s labelled which is responsible for: (i) Static equilibrium (ii) Dynamic equilibrium (iii) Hearing
Q-16 Study the diagram given alongside and do as instructed.
(a) Label the parts indicated by guidelines.
(b) Write the collective name for the three bones shown.
(c) Name the smallest of the three bones.
(d) Name the part of the ear where these bones are located.
(e) Which of these bones connect with the oval window?
Chapter-10 The Endocrine System
Q-1 Differentiate between:
(i) Nervous control and hormonal control
(ii) Exocrine gland and endocrine gland
(iii) Diabetes mellitus and diabetes insipidus
(iv) Simple goitre and exophthalmic goitre
(v) Hormones and enzymes
Q-2 Answer the following questions
(1) Name three organs that are endocrine as well as exocrine in function. Also name their endocrine secretions.
(2) State three characteristics of hormones.
Q-3 Explain briefly:
(i) The pancreas is both, an exocrine and endocrine gland.
(ii) Iodine rich food must be included in our diet.
(iii) Some ladies develop beard, moustache and masculine voice.
(iv) Mouth dries up and heart beat increases during maiden speech.
(v) Milk is secreted from the breast of the mother during suckling by the infant.
(vi) There is an acceleration of body growth during puberty.
Q-4 What would be the effect produced if:
(i) Adrenal gland is removed?
(ii) Blood sugar level falls?
(iii) Thyroid does not function properly?
Q-5 State one visible effect of:
(i) Cushing syndrome
(ii) Addison's disease
(iii) Simple goitre
(iv) Myxoedema
(v) Exophthalmic goitre
(vi) Adrenal virilism in: a. Females b. Prepubertal male
Q-6 How do the following body parts respond to a surge of adrenal, and what is the sensation produced?
(i) Heart
(ii) Arterioles of skin
(iii) Muscles of body
(iv) Arterioles of digestive system
Q-7 Answer the following questions:
(i) Name the cells of the pancreas that produce a. glucagon b. insulin
(ii) State the main function of a. glucagon b. insulin
(iii) Why is the pancreas referred to as an exo-endocrine gland?
(iv) Why is insulin not given orally but is injected into the body?
(v) What is the technical term for the cells of the pancreas that produce endocrine hormones?
(vi) Where in the body is the pancreas located?
Q-8 State the cause and visible symptom that characterises the following conditions:
(i) Acromegaly
(ii) Cretinism
(iii) Addison's disease
(iv) Simple goitre
(v) Myxoedema
(vi) Cushing's disease
Q-9 Name the condition described below:
(i) The bones of limbs and lower jaw become abnormally long.
(ii) Moon face, spindly legs and pendulous abdomen.
(iii) Disproportionate swelling of the neck.
(iv) Appearance of beard, atrophy of the breast, lack of menstruation in females.
Q-10 Complete the following paragraph by filling in the blanks (i) to (v) with appropriate words:
The amount of urine output is under the regulation of a hormone called (i) ________ secreted by the (ii) ________ lobe of the pituitary gland. If this hormone secretion is reduced, then there is an increased production of urine. This disorder is called (iii) ________ . Sometimes excess glucose is passed with urine due to hyposecretion of another hormone called (iv) ________ leading to the cause of a disease called (v) ________ .
Chapter-11 The Reproductive System
Q-1 Fill in the blanks:
(i) The testes are composed of the ________________ which produce sperms and the ________ ________ which produce ________ .
(ii) The ________ ________ transports sperms from the ________ to the ___________ .
Q-2 Fill in the blanks:
(i) The open funnel shaped distal end of the fallopian tube is called ________ .
(ii) The muscular walls of the oviduct are lined with ________ epithelium.
(iii) The lower, narrow portion of the uterus opening into the vagina is called the ________ .
Q-3 Answer the following questions
(1) Name any two accessory parts of the male reproductive system and state the function of each.
(2) Name the primary reproductive part of the female reproductive system and state its function.
(3) Trace the path of a sperm from the time it is produced until it fuses with the ovum.
(4) Name two substances that diffuse into, and two substances that diffuse out of the placenta.
(5) State three functions of the placenta.
(6) What is the menstrual cycle?
(7) What is the average duration of each menstrual cycle?
(8) What is the average duration of menstruation?
(9) Briefly describe the events that occur in the following phases of the menstrual cycle: a. Menstrual phase b. Preovulatory phase c. Ovulation
Q-4 Explain briefly:
(i) The oviducal funnel is lined with cilia.
(ii) The mother's blood does not circulate through the embryo.
(iii) The umbilical cord is the life line of the foetus.
(iv) The foetus respires but does not breathe.
(v) Chance of pregnancy to occur is most favourable around the 14th-15th day of the menstrual cycle.
Q-5 Give a biological term for the following:
(i) Period between menstruation and ovulation.
(ii) Period between ovulation and the onset of the next menstrual cycle.
Q-6 Name the gland or part, and the hormone secreted by it during the menstrual cycle which:
(i) Causes ovulation.
(ii) Stimulates follicular growth.
(iii) Causes thickening of the endometrium.
(iv) Stimulates secretion of progesterone.
(v) Inhibits the secretion of luteinising hormone and the follicle stimulating hormone.
Q-7 Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct alternative out of those given in the brackets.
(i) Fertilisation of the human egg normally occurs in the _______ (uterus/fallopian tube/vagina).
(ii) Human gestation period is about ______ (250 days/280 days/260 days).
(iii) The expulsion of the foetus from the body of the mother in a human female is called _______ (gestation/parturition/puberty).
(iv) One egg is normally released from one ovary in the human female after _______________ (28 days/40 days/38 days).
(v) Placenta is ______ (impermeable/selectively permeable/permeable).
(vi) The female equivalent of the penis is the ______ (vestibule/hymen/clitoris).
Q-8 State whether the following statements are true or false.
(i) Zygote is the product of fusion of male and female gametes.
(ii) Fimbriae fringing the oviducal funnel push the released ovum into the uterus.
(iii) Menarche is the permanent stoppage of menstruation.
(iv) Amniotic fluid acts as a shock absorber and protects the foetus.
(v) Fertilisation takes place in the uterus.
(vi) Identical twins grow in separate amniotic sacs.
(vii) The oviduct is homologous to the male vas deferens.
(viii) Menopause is the termination of pregnancy and the beginning of extrauterine life of the foetus.
(ix) Gonads are endocrine and non-endocrine in function.
(x) Chorion is the inner membrane that surrounds the embryo.
(xi) The corpus callosum maintains progesterone levels when the egg has been fertilised.
(xii) The fallopian tube is the conduit between the developing embryo and the placenta.
(xiii) The ovulation phase is marked with high levels of estrogen.
(xiv) The luteal phase is the shortest phase of the menstrual cycle.
(xv) Development of breast is a primary sex characteristic in females.
Q-9 Name:
(i) The tube that leads from the ovary to the uterus.
(ii) The lower part of the birth canal.
(iii) A hormone produced by the ovaries.
(iv) The two main hormones that maintain the menstrual cycle.
(v) A hormone secreted by the graafian follicle.
(vi) Finger-like projections of the oviducal funnel.
(vii) The organ in a mammalian female in which the foetus develops.
(viii) The stage of maturity when an individual develops secondary sexual characteristics and is capable of sexual reproduction.
(ix) The hormone which plays an important role in the delivery of the foetus.
(x) Two hormones secreted by the corpus luteum.
Q-10 Name the gland or part, and the hormone secreted by it during the menstrual cycle which:
(i) Causes ovulation.
(ii) Stimulates follicular growth.
(iii) Causes thickening of the endometrium.
(iv) Stimulates secretion of progesterone.
(v) Inhibits the secretion of luteinising hormone and the follicle stimulating hormone.
Q-11 Label the parts 1 to 11 in the diagram given below.
Q-12 Label the parts 1-9 in the diagram given below.
Q-13 Given alongside is the outline of the male urogenital system:
(a) Name the parts labelled 1 to 10.
(b) State the function of the parts labelled 3, 4 and 5
(c) Name the cells of part 1 that produce testosterone.
(d) Structure 1 is present outside the body. Explain why.
(e) What is semen?
(f) In which part are the sperms produced?
(g) In which part are the sperms stored?
(h) Name two substances that are transported through part 9.
(i) Which parts have no role in reproduction?
(j) Name the part that is common to both the male reproductive system and the excretory system.
Q-14 Label the following parts in the structure shown alongside:
(a) Seminiferous tubules, Rete testis, Straight tubules, Head of epididymis
(b) Where is this structure located in a. adult males? b. the male foetus?
(c) Name three glands associated with the system to which this structure belongs and state the main function of any two glands.
(d) What would happen if the testes fail to descend into the scrotum prior to birth?
Q-15 Given alongside is a diagrammatic representation of the ventral sectional view of the female reproductive system.
(a) Label the parts 1-8.
(b) Name two hormones secreted by part 3.
(c) State the function of the hormones named in (b)
(d) Name and define the process taking place at the region indicated by the arrow A.
(e) Name and define the process taking place at B.
(f) Name and define the process taking place at C.
(g) What happens to the part labelled 7 if process at B does not take place?
(h) How is the structure released at A transported from A to C?
Q-16 Study the structure shown and answer the questions:
(a) Identify the structure and state where it is located.
(b) Label parts 1-4 in the given diagram.
(c) Explain the role of structure 4.
(d) What are possible events that could follow event A?
Q-17 The figure shown represents a medical procedure.
(a) Name the process.
(b) Name the fluid that is being extracted by the syringe.
(c) State one useful purpose of this procedure.
(d) State how this process is often misused.
(e) Label parts 1 to 4.
Chapter-12 Human Evolution
Q-1 Answer the following questions
(1) What is meant by evolution?
(2) According to the theory of evolution, changes in environment may cause an organism to develop various adaptations. Support this statement with a suitable example.
(3) Briefly state and explain the three main ideas contained in Lamarck's theory of evolution.
(4) Briefly state and explain the three main ideas contained in Lamarck's theory of evolution.
(5) What are vestigial structures?
(6) Explain the significance of vestigial structures despite the fact that they have no function to perform in the current organism.
(7) Mention three characteristics that account for the superiority of primates over all other animal groups.
(8) Mention any five structural limitations of the human body.
(9) Mention the general characteristics of the Australopithecine Skull.
Q-2 Name the scientists associated with the following theories:
(i) Use and disuse theory
(ii) Natural Selection
Q-3 Explain the long neck of the present day giraffe on the basis of:
(i) Use and disuse theory
(ii) Natural Selection
Q-4 Explain briefly the following:
(i) The change of the lighter-coloured variety of peppered moth to its darker variety is due to mutation.
(ii) The diversity in the type of beaks of finches adapted to different feeding habits on the Galapagos Islands provides evidence for origin of species by natural selection.
Q-5 The transition from quadruped to biped required important physical changes. In this context explain the following modifications:
(i) The big toe became large and in line with the others.
(ii) Legs became longer than the arms.
(iii) The sole of the feet became arched.
(v) The pelvis became shorter.
(vi) The spine of the lower back became curved.
Q-6 Fill in the blanks by selecting the correct alternative.
(i) The first primate to consistently use tools was _________ (Homo habilis/Homo erectus).
(ii) _________ (Neanderthal/Cro-magnon) is more modern in its characteristics.
(iii) _________ (Bipedalism/large brains) evolved first in hominids.
(iv) The first animals to have opposable, grasping digits were _________ (Apes/prosimians).
(v) The average brain size of Australopithecus species was _______ (400-500 cc/800-1000 cc).
(vi) Mitochondrial DNA evidence points to _________ (Africa/Asia) as the origin of today's human race.
(vii) _________ (Neanderthal/Cro-magnon) man is most closely related to modern day humans.
(viii) Lucy belonged to the species Australopithecus ________ (Robustus/Afarensis).
(ix) Reason of diversity in living beings is _________ (Short term/long term) evolutionary change.
(i) The first primate to consistently use tools was _________ (Homo habi/is/Homo erectus).
Q-7 Explain the evolutionary advantage of the following features of human beings:
(i) Erect posture
(ii) Opposable thumb
(iii) Stereoscopic vision
(iv) Development of speech
(v) Unspecialised teeth
(vi) Upper limbs free from locomotion
Q-8 State whether the following statements are true or false . Correct the incorrect statements.
(i) The genus Homo appeared about 2 million years ago.
(ii) Orangutans are the present day apes most closely related to present day humans.
(iii) Evidence indicates that Australopithecus used crude tools.
(iv) The first use of fire by hominids is associated with Homo habilis.
(v) Humans have a short pelvis as compared to apes.
(vi) The tailbone is a vestigial organ in humans.
(vii) Birds and mammals have evolved from reptiles.
(viii) The anatomy of the human brain reflects a selection for success in manual skills.
(ix) Humans have the advantage of an omnivorous diet as their teeth are not specialised for any particular diet.
(x) Phenomenon of industrial melanism demonstrates induced mutation.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 The first form of human like creature appeared more the 4 million years ago in:
(i)
Africa(ii)
Asia(iii)
Europe(iv)
America
Q-2 Which is NOT a hominid feature?
(i)
Upright posture(ii)
Bipedal locomotion(iii)
Construction and use of tools(iv)
Small brain and large teeth
Q-3 The chronological order of human evolution from early to the recent is:
(i)
Homo sapiens âž” Australopithecus âž” Homo habilis âž” Homo erectus âž” Homo sapiens sapiens(ii)
Australopithecus âž” Homo habilis âž” âž” Homo erectus âž” Homo sapiens âž” Homo sapiens sapiens(iii)
Australopithecus âž” Homo erectus âž” Homo sapiens âž” Homo sapiens sapiensâž” Homo habilis(iv)
Homo habilis âž” Homo sapiens âž” Homo erectus âž” Homo sapiens sapiens âž” Australopithecus
Q-4 Which is NOT a feature of Australopithecus:
(i)
Body covered with hair(ii)
Bipedal(iii)
Prominent chin(iv)
Flat face with brows projecting over the eyes
Q-5 Which of the following is not an ape?
(i)
Chimpanzee(ii)
Orangutan(iii)
Gorilla(iv)
Monkey
Q-6 Which one of the following changes did not contribute to the transition from quadraped to biped?
(i)
Legs became longer than arms.(ii)
The pelvis became shorter.(iii)
Loss of tail.(iv)
The sole of the feet became arched.Chapter-13 Population
Q-1 Answer the following questions
(1) What is the present rate of growth of population of the world and of India?
(2) List three major landmarks in human history which contributed to sudden rise in the population of the world.
(3) What is the approximate Indian population according to the 2011 census?
(4) Explain the term "Growth rate of population". In what situation can it be negative?
(5) What is the popular sign for family planning and family welfare in India?
(6) Mention two reasons for the decline in death rate in India in recent times.
(7) List the advantages of having small families.
(8) What are the main drawbacks of a large population?
(9) Account for the high birth rate in India.
(10) What are the age restrictions for marriage by law for boys and girls in India?
(11) What are the main objectives of the Family Welfare Program?
(12) What steps has the Indian Government taken to control population?
(13) Name any two methods of birth control.
(14) Population grows exponentially. Explain what is meant by this statement.
(15) Justify the statement "Our reserves cannot keep pace with rising population" with two examples.
Q-2 Define:
(i) Birth rate
(ii) Death rate
(iii) Overpopulation
(iv) Demography
(v) Population density
(vi) Family Planning
(vii) Growth Curve
(viii) Census
Q-3 Give the biological term/technical term for the following:
(i) The number of children born per unit time per unit number of fertile females.
(ii) The number of individuals belonging to different age groups.
(iii) Foams, creams and jellies used to kill sperms as a measure to prevent pregnancy.
(iv) A safe method of contraception that prevents transmission of sexual disease to the female partner.
(v) The exceptionally high rate of growth of population.
(vi) The total number of individuals of a species found in a particular area.
Q-4 Match the items given in Column I with those of Column II
Chapter-14 Pollution
Q-1 Answer the following questions
(1) Define pollution.
(2) List any three pollutants of each - water, air and soil.
(3) Environmental pollution is the by-product of modern civilisation. Comment.
(4) State the factors that affect air pollution in a particular area.
(5) How do tall buildings in a city cause temperature inversion?
(6) What effect does bio-medical waste accumulation have on the environment?
(7) How do oil spills affect marine life?
(8) State two local and two global effects of air pollution.
(9) Describe the sources of land pollution.
(10) How do fertilisers and pesticides cause soil pollution?
(11) State four general methods of controlling air pollution.
(12) State four measures of proper traffic management that can help reduce air pollution.
(13) 'Prevention is better than cure' . Give two examples to illustrate the statement in the context of air pollution.
(14) Briefly explain how air pollution has become a serious obstacle in the socio-economic development of a country.
(15) Explain - 'Alternative fuel'. What advantages do these fuels have over traditional fossil fuels?
(16) What is nuclear waste? How should it be disposed?
(17) During festivals people should exercise restraint and reduce noise. Suggest some more measures to combat noise pollution in cities.
Q-2 Write short notes on:
(i) Greenhouse effect
(ii) Ozone depletion
(iii) Acid rain
(iv) Smog
(v) Temperature inversion
(vi) Indoor air pollution
Q-3 Name:
(i) Substances that cause depletion of ozone layer.
(ii) Two gases that form Acid rain.
(iii) Unit to measure level of sound with reference to noise pollution.
(iv) Concentration of a pollutant in the food chain.
(v) A natural (bio) fertiliser.
Q-4 Explain the following:
(i) Droplet nuclei
(ii) Oil slick
(iii) Thermal pollution
(iv) PCBs
(v) Biomagnification
(vi) Eutrophication
Q-5 State two harmful effects of each of the following:
(i) Noise pollution
(ii) Radioactive pollution
Q-6 Most of the gases and particles that people put into the air come from combustion processes.
(i) Name the gases that result from combustion of fossil fuels.
(ii) Name three chief sources of urban air pollution.
(iii) What are particulates? Name one chief source of particulates.
(iv) Suggest two ways by which residential areas can be free from industrial emission.
(v) Name two sources of offensive fumes.
Q-7 In many large cities of India, vehicular pollution is the chief culprit of air pollution:
(i) In the context of the above statement, briefly explain how motor vehicles contribute to air pollution.
(ii) Suggest two ways by which vehicular emission can be controlled.
(iii) State some of the measures that can be applied to encourage the use of mass transit systems as effective means to reduce vehicular pollution.
Q-8 What is Acid Rain? State the harmful effects of acid rain to each of the following:
(i) The environment
(ii) Human beings
Q-9 Suggest measures to control the following gaseous pollutants:
(i) Carbon monoxide
(ii) Hydrocarbons
(iii) Sulphur dioxide
(iv) Oxides of nitrogen
Q-10 State three ways each to control:
(i) Air pollution
(ii) Water pollution
(iii) Marine pollution
(iv) Noise pollution
Q-11 Write a short note on each of the following:
(i) Bharat Stage Vehicular norms
(ii) Benefits of recycling waste
Multiple Choice Questions
Q-1 A device used in the chimney to remove solid particles from the gases released in the air:
(i)
stainer(ii)
electrostatic precipitator(iii)
cloth(iv)
converter
Q-2 The smog is formed due to:
(i)
dust and fog(ii)
smoke and fog(iii)
CO2 and fog(iv)
Sun and fog
Q-3 Eutrophication leads to death of fish due to:
(i)
decreased 0 2 concentration(ii)
increased algal growth(iii)
increased CO2 concentration(iv)
increased 0 2 concentration
Q-4 Soil erosion is mainly caused due to:
(i)
wind(ii)
cutting of trees(iii)
overuse of fertilisers(iv)
poor irrigation
Q-5 Large amounts of mercury is released into the air during the manufacture and disposal of:
(i)
glass(ii)
dry cells(iii)
cement(iv)
television
Q-6 Decibel (dB) is the unit of measuring:
(i)
water pollution(ii)
noise pollution(iii)
air pollution(iv)
soil pollution
Q-7 A device used to convert harmful gases from the automobiles:
(i)
filter pump(ii)
break shoes(iii)
catalytic converter(iv)
precipitator
Q-8 A gas emitted from the oil refinery causes nausea, dizziness and in large amount causes death:
(i)
sulphur dioxide(ii)
carbon dioxide(iii)
hydrogen sulphide(iv)
nitrogen dioxide
Q-9 A natural method to get rid of oil slicks from the marine water:
(i)
algae(ii)
fish(iii)
bacteria (Pseudomonas)(iv)
detergents
Q-10 Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas:
(i)
ammonia(ii)
nitric oxide(iii)
methane(iv)
carbon dioxide